## Friday, September 30, 2016

## Thursday, September 29, 2016

## Wednesday, September 28, 2016

## Tuesday, September 27, 2016

## Monday, September 26, 2016

## Sunday, September 25, 2016

## Saturday, September 24, 2016

## Friday, September 23, 2016

## Thursday, September 22, 2016

## Wednesday, September 21, 2016

## Tuesday, September 20, 2016

## Monday, September 19, 2016

## Sunday, September 18, 2016

## Saturday, September 17, 2016

## Friday, September 16, 2016

## Thursday, September 15, 2016

### Bank Preparation 256

Directions (Q. 101 - 109) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given

below it.

Banking sector reforms in India were introduced in order to improve efficiency in the process

of financial intermediation. It was expected that banks would take advantage of the changing

operational environment and improve their performance. Towards this end, the Reserve Bank of India

initiated a host of measures for the creation of a competitive environment. Deregulation of interest

rates on both deposit and lending sides imparted freedom to banks to appropriate price their products

and services. To compete effectively with non-banking entities, banks were permitted to undertake

newer activities like investment banking, securities trading and insurance business. This was

facilitated through amendments in the relevant acts which permitted PSBs to raise equity from the

market up to threshold limit and also enabling the entry of new private and foreign banks. This

changing face of banking led to an erosion of margins on traditional banking business, promoting

banks to search for newer activities to augment their free incomes. At the same time, banks also

needed to devote focused attention to operational efficiency in order to contain their transaction costs.

Simultaneously with the deregulation measures prudential norms were instituted to strengthen the

safety and soundness of the banking system. Recent internal empirical research found that over the

period 1992-2003, there has been a discernible improvement in the efficiency of Indian banks. The

increasing trend in efficiency has been fairly uniform, irrespective of the ownership pattern. The rate

of such improvement has, however, not been sufficiently high. The analysis also reveals that PSBs

and private sector banks in India did not differe significantly in terms of their efficiency measures.

Foreign banks, on the other hand, recorded higher efficiency as compared with their Indian

counterparts.

101. Prudential norms were initiated in the banking sector with a view to

a) Increase operational efficiency

b) Contain the non-performing assets

c) Strengthen the soundness of banking system

d) Improve the custome service

e) None of these

102. Banking sector reforms in India were introduced for the purpose of

a) Giving more and more employment opportunities to the educated unemployed

b) Taking care of the downtrodden masses

c) Increasing efficiency in the banking activities

d) Giving better return to the Central Government

e) None of these

103. Banks can control their transaction costs by

a) Restricting their lending activities

b) Undertaking more and more non-banking activities

c) Encouraging the customers to bank with other banks

d) Devoting more attention to operational efficiency

e) None of these

104. The recent internal empirical research conducted by the RBI found that

a) There is cut-throat competition in banking industry

b) The rate of return is not commensurate with the operational cost

c) The rate of improvement has not been high

d) Nationalised banks and private sector banks did differ in the efficiency measures

e) None of these

105. Which of the following statements recognising improvement in efficiency is true in

the context of the passage?

a) There is no discremible difference in efficiency parameters

b) The foreign banks recorded higher efficiency

c) The efficiency of foreign banks is not comparable with Indian banks

d) The rate of such improvement in efficiency was very high

e) None of these

Directions (Q. 106 - 107) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word

printed in bold as used in the passage.

106. Relevant

a) Recorded b) Opposite c) Appropriate d) Stringent e) Germane

107. Augment

a) Make b) Become c) Enlarge d) Increase e) Envelop

Directions (Q. 108 - 109) Choose the word that is most opposite of the word printed in bold as used

in the passage.

108. Improve

a) Retard b) Disprove c) Prove d) Accelerate e) Degenerate

109. Reveal

a) Show b) Conceal c) Secretive d) Exhibit e) None of these

below it.

Banking sector reforms in India were introduced in order to improve efficiency in the process

of financial intermediation. It was expected that banks would take advantage of the changing

operational environment and improve their performance. Towards this end, the Reserve Bank of India

initiated a host of measures for the creation of a competitive environment. Deregulation of interest

rates on both deposit and lending sides imparted freedom to banks to appropriate price their products

and services. To compete effectively with non-banking entities, banks were permitted to undertake

newer activities like investment banking, securities trading and insurance business. This was

facilitated through amendments in the relevant acts which permitted PSBs to raise equity from the

market up to threshold limit and also enabling the entry of new private and foreign banks. This

changing face of banking led to an erosion of margins on traditional banking business, promoting

banks to search for newer activities to augment their free incomes. At the same time, banks also

needed to devote focused attention to operational efficiency in order to contain their transaction costs.

Simultaneously with the deregulation measures prudential norms were instituted to strengthen the

safety and soundness of the banking system. Recent internal empirical research found that over the

period 1992-2003, there has been a discernible improvement in the efficiency of Indian banks. The

increasing trend in efficiency has been fairly uniform, irrespective of the ownership pattern. The rate

of such improvement has, however, not been sufficiently high. The analysis also reveals that PSBs

and private sector banks in India did not differe significantly in terms of their efficiency measures.

Foreign banks, on the other hand, recorded higher efficiency as compared with their Indian

counterparts.

101. Prudential norms were initiated in the banking sector with a view to

a) Increase operational efficiency

b) Contain the non-performing assets

c) Strengthen the soundness of banking system

d) Improve the custome service

e) None of these

102. Banking sector reforms in India were introduced for the purpose of

a) Giving more and more employment opportunities to the educated unemployed

b) Taking care of the downtrodden masses

c) Increasing efficiency in the banking activities

d) Giving better return to the Central Government

e) None of these

103. Banks can control their transaction costs by

a) Restricting their lending activities

b) Undertaking more and more non-banking activities

c) Encouraging the customers to bank with other banks

d) Devoting more attention to operational efficiency

e) None of these

104. The recent internal empirical research conducted by the RBI found that

a) There is cut-throat competition in banking industry

b) The rate of return is not commensurate with the operational cost

c) The rate of improvement has not been high

d) Nationalised banks and private sector banks did differ in the efficiency measures

e) None of these

105. Which of the following statements recognising improvement in efficiency is true in

the context of the passage?

a) There is no discremible difference in efficiency parameters

b) The foreign banks recorded higher efficiency

c) The efficiency of foreign banks is not comparable with Indian banks

d) The rate of such improvement in efficiency was very high

e) None of these

Directions (Q. 106 - 107) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word

printed in bold as used in the passage.

106. Relevant

a) Recorded b) Opposite c) Appropriate d) Stringent e) Germane

107. Augment

a) Make b) Become c) Enlarge d) Increase e) Envelop

Directions (Q. 108 - 109) Choose the word that is most opposite of the word printed in bold as used

in the passage.

108. Improve

a) Retard b) Disprove c) Prove d) Accelerate e) Degenerate

109. Reveal

a) Show b) Conceal c) Secretive d) Exhibit e) None of these

## Wednesday, September 14, 2016

### Bank Preparation 255

Directions (Q. 96 - 100) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that

follows.

Eight persons namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line from East to

West. Some are facing North direction and some are facing South direction.

H sits to the third left of C and faces South. F is sitting at one of the extreme ends and is

facing North. B and G are facing in same direction and person sitting between them is facing in

opposite direction. A is sitting third from left end and is facing South direction. A is sitting adjacent to

E and both are facing in opposite direction. D is sitting to the right of B and both are facing in same

direction. C is facing in North direction. A and D are not neighbours. Neighbors of H are facing in

same direction which is opposite to the direction of H is facing. E sits to the right of A.

96. Who is sitting between A and H?

a) F b) E c) G b) B e) None of these

97. Which of the following pairs has the person facing the same direction?

a) E, A b) G, H c) A, G d) H, D e) B, D

98. How many persons are facing in North direction?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6

99. Who is sitting third from the eastern end of the arrangement?

a) E b) G c) B d) C e) None of these

100. How many persons are sitting between E and B?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6

follows.

Eight persons namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line from East to

West. Some are facing North direction and some are facing South direction.

H sits to the third left of C and faces South. F is sitting at one of the extreme ends and is

facing North. B and G are facing in same direction and person sitting between them is facing in

opposite direction. A is sitting third from left end and is facing South direction. A is sitting adjacent to

E and both are facing in opposite direction. D is sitting to the right of B and both are facing in same

direction. C is facing in North direction. A and D are not neighbours. Neighbors of H are facing in

same direction which is opposite to the direction of H is facing. E sits to the right of A.

96. Who is sitting between A and H?

a) F b) E c) G b) B e) None of these

97. Which of the following pairs has the person facing the same direction?

a) E, A b) G, H c) A, G d) H, D e) B, D

98. How many persons are facing in North direction?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6

99. Who is sitting third from the eastern end of the arrangement?

a) E b) G c) B d) C e) None of these

100. How many persons are sitting between E and B?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) 6

## Tuesday, September 13, 2016

### Bank Preparation 254

Directions (Q. 91 – 95) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below.

Following are the conditions for selecting Marketing Manager in an organization:

The candidate must ____

(i) Be at least 30 years old as on 01.03.2009

(ii) Have secured at least 55% marks in graduation

(iii) Have secured at least 60% marks in Post Graduate4 Degree/Diploma in Marketing.

(iv) Have post qualification work experience of at least five years in th e Marketing Division

of an organization

(v) Have secured at least 45% marks in the selection process.

In the case of a candidates who satisfies all other conditions except

(a) At (iv) above, but has post qualification work experience of at least two years as Deputy

Marketing Manager, the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing.

(b) At (ii) above, but has secured at least 65% marks in Post Graduate Degree /Diploma in

Marketing Management, the case is to be referred to Vice President-Marketing.

In each question below is given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following

courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given

above and mark your answer accordingly. You are not to assume anything other than the

information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.03.2009.

Give answer:

a) If the candidate is not to be selected.

b) If the candidate is to be selected.

c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision.

d) If the case is to be referred to Vice President-Marketing.

e) If the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing.

91. Suresh Mehta has secured 58% marks in graduation. He was born on 19th May 1975. He has

secured 50% marks in the selection process. He has been working for the past seven years in

the Marketing division of an organization after completing his Post Graduation with 62%

marks.

92. SudhaGopalan has secured 50% marks in both selection process and graduation. She has been

working for the past six years in the marketing division of an organization after completing

her Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing with 70% marks. She was born on 14th October

1978.

93. DivyaKohli has been working for the past five years in Marketing Division of an organization

after completing her Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing with 65% marks. She has secured

55% marks in graduation and 50% marks in the selection process. She was born on 02nd April

1979.

94. NavinMarathe was born on 08th April 1975. He has secured 60% marks in both graduation

and Post Graduate Degree in Marketing. He has been working for the past six years in the

Marketing division of an organization after completing his PG Degree in Marketing. He has

secured 50% marks in the selection process.

95. VarunMalhotra was born on 03rd July 1976. He has been working as Deputy Marketing

Manager in an organization for the past three years after completing his Post Graduate Degree

in Marketing with 65% marks. He secured 55% marks in both graduation and selection

process.

below.

Following are the conditions for selecting Marketing Manager in an organization:

The candidate must ____

(i) Be at least 30 years old as on 01.03.2009

(ii) Have secured at least 55% marks in graduation

(iii) Have secured at least 60% marks in Post Graduate4 Degree/Diploma in Marketing.

(iv) Have post qualification work experience of at least five years in th e Marketing Division

of an organization

(v) Have secured at least 45% marks in the selection process.

In the case of a candidates who satisfies all other conditions except

(a) At (iv) above, but has post qualification work experience of at least two years as Deputy

Marketing Manager, the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing.

(b) At (ii) above, but has secured at least 65% marks in Post Graduate Degree /Diploma in

Marketing Management, the case is to be referred to Vice President-Marketing.

In each question below is given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following

courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given

above and mark your answer accordingly. You are not to assume anything other than the

information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.03.2009.

Give answer:

a) If the candidate is not to be selected.

b) If the candidate is to be selected.

c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision.

d) If the case is to be referred to Vice President-Marketing.

e) If the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing.

91. Suresh Mehta has secured 58% marks in graduation. He was born on 19th May 1975. He has

secured 50% marks in the selection process. He has been working for the past seven years in

the Marketing division of an organization after completing his Post Graduation with 62%

marks.

92. SudhaGopalan has secured 50% marks in both selection process and graduation. She has been

working for the past six years in the marketing division of an organization after completing

her Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing with 70% marks. She was born on 14th October

1978.

93. DivyaKohli has been working for the past five years in Marketing Division of an organization

after completing her Post Graduate Diploma in Marketing with 65% marks. She has secured

55% marks in graduation and 50% marks in the selection process. She was born on 02nd April

1979.

94. NavinMarathe was born on 08th April 1975. He has secured 60% marks in both graduation

and Post Graduate Degree in Marketing. He has been working for the past six years in the

Marketing division of an organization after completing his PG Degree in Marketing. He has

secured 50% marks in the selection process.

95. VarunMalhotra was born on 03rd July 1976. He has been working as Deputy Marketing

Manager in an organization for the past three years after completing his Post Graduate Degree

in Marketing with 65% marks. He secured 55% marks in both graduation and selection

process.

## Monday, September 12, 2016

### Bank Preparation 253

Directions (Q. 71 - 75) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below.

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a college. Each of them has a favourite subject

from Physics, Chemistry, English, Biology, History, Geography and Philosopy, not necessarily in the

same order. Each of them also has a favourite sport from Football, Cricket, Hockey, Volleyball,

Badminton, Table Tennis and Basketball, not necessarily in the same order.

R likes Philospy and his favourite sport is Hockey. The one who likes Football likes English.

T’s favourite sport is not badminton or Table Tennis. V does not like either History or Bilogy. The

one whose favourite sport is Basketball does not like Physics. W likes Chemistry and his favourite

sport is Volleball. S likes Geography. Q’s favourite sport is Badminton. V does not like English and

his favourite sport is not Basketball. P’s favourite sport is Cricket. The one whose favourite sport is

Badminton does not like Biology.

71. Who likes History?

a) P b) R c) Q d) V e) Data inadequate

72. Whose favourite sport is Basketball?

a) S b) W c) Q d) Data inadequate e) None of these

73. Which subject does T like?

a) Biology b) Physics c) Chemistry d) Data inadequate e) None of these

74. What is Q’s favourite sport?

a) Cricket b) Table Tennis c) Football d) Badminton e) None of these

75. Which subject does P like?

a) History b) Biology c) Chemistry d) Data inadequate e) None of these

below.

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a college. Each of them has a favourite subject

from Physics, Chemistry, English, Biology, History, Geography and Philosopy, not necessarily in the

same order. Each of them also has a favourite sport from Football, Cricket, Hockey, Volleyball,

Badminton, Table Tennis and Basketball, not necessarily in the same order.

R likes Philospy and his favourite sport is Hockey. The one who likes Football likes English.

T’s favourite sport is not badminton or Table Tennis. V does not like either History or Bilogy. The

one whose favourite sport is Basketball does not like Physics. W likes Chemistry and his favourite

sport is Volleball. S likes Geography. Q’s favourite sport is Badminton. V does not like English and

his favourite sport is not Basketball. P’s favourite sport is Cricket. The one whose favourite sport is

Badminton does not like Biology.

71. Who likes History?

a) P b) R c) Q d) V e) Data inadequate

72. Whose favourite sport is Basketball?

a) S b) W c) Q d) Data inadequate e) None of these

73. Which subject does T like?

a) Biology b) Physics c) Chemistry d) Data inadequate e) None of these

74. What is Q’s favourite sport?

a) Cricket b) Table Tennis c) Football d) Badminton e) None of these

75. Which subject does P like?

a) History b) Biology c) Chemistry d) Data inadequate e) None of these

## Sunday, September 11, 2016

### Bank Preparation 252

Directions (Q. 66 - 70) Study the following information carefully and answer the given

questions:

A man has six sons U, V, W, X, Y and Z, who stay in four metro cities. They work in

different companies, viz. Infosys, Tech Mahindra, Tata, Nike, Walmart and Titan but not necessarily

in the same order. Z stays in Mumbai and works with Nike. Those who stay in Kilkata work with

Tech Mahindra and Walmart. One of the two Mumbaikars works with Titan. The one who works with

Infosys lives in Chennai. Z does not live in Chennai. U works with Tata. V works with Tech

Mahindra. Y works with Walmart.

66. Who amoing the following works with Infosys?

a) U b) W c) X d) Y e) None of these

67. Which of the following pairs lives in Kolkata?

a) XY b) ZX c) VY d) WU e) None of these

68. Z works with which of the following companies?

a) Walmart b) Titan c) Tata d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

69. In which of the following metros does W live?

a) Delhi b) Chennai c) Kolkata d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

70. Which of the following combinations is true?

a) V – Mumbai – Walmart

b) Z – Kolkata – Walmart

c) Y – Delhi – Titan

d) W – Chennai- Infosys

e) None of these

questions:

A man has six sons U, V, W, X, Y and Z, who stay in four metro cities. They work in

different companies, viz. Infosys, Tech Mahindra, Tata, Nike, Walmart and Titan but not necessarily

in the same order. Z stays in Mumbai and works with Nike. Those who stay in Kilkata work with

Tech Mahindra and Walmart. One of the two Mumbaikars works with Titan. The one who works with

Infosys lives in Chennai. Z does not live in Chennai. U works with Tata. V works with Tech

Mahindra. Y works with Walmart.

66. Who amoing the following works with Infosys?

a) U b) W c) X d) Y e) None of these

67. Which of the following pairs lives in Kolkata?

a) XY b) ZX c) VY d) WU e) None of these

68. Z works with which of the following companies?

a) Walmart b) Titan c) Tata d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

69. In which of the following metros does W live?

a) Delhi b) Chennai c) Kolkata d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

70. Which of the following combinations is true?

a) V – Mumbai – Walmart

b) Z – Kolkata – Walmart

c) Y – Delhi – Titan

d) W – Chennai- Infosys

e) None of these

## Saturday, September 10, 2016

### Bank Preparation 251

Directions (Q. 61 - 65) Study the following arrangement and answer the questions give below.

61. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left and if all the numbers are

arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in

the arrangement unchanged?

a) 5 b) 4 c) 7 d) 8 e) None of these

62. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and

immediately followed by a number?

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Five e) None of these

63. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?

a) Two b) Five c) Four d) Three e) None of these

64. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above

arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

a) G$M b) K9Q c) ?DS7 d) 2MU e) PCI

65. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelth from the left end of the

arrangement?

a) # b) 7 c) U d) 9 e) None of these

**A $ B # 9 G 3 D K * M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ∅ J**61. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left and if all the numbers are

arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in

the arrangement unchanged?

a) 5 b) 4 c) 7 d) 8 e) None of these

62. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and

immediately followed by a number?

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Five e) None of these

63. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?

a) Two b) Five c) Four d) Three e) None of these

64. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above

arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

a) G$M b) K9Q c) ?DS7 d) 2MU e) PCI

65. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelth from the left end of the

arrangement?

a) # b) 7 c) U d) 9 e) None of these

## Friday, September 9, 2016

### Bank Preparation 250

Directions (Q. 56 - 60) Read the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

There are five married couples in a family and there is a child to every couple. Ages of

children are 3, 4, 5, 6 and 9 years. Name of males are M, N, O, P and Q. Name of children are A, B,

C, D and E. Name of females are V, W, X, Y and Z. Name of M’s child is not C and E and he is not

eldest or youngest. Age of X’s child is 6 years and her husband is one among N, O and Q. Age of D is 3 years but she is not a child of O. A’s age is multiple of 3 but she is not a child of M and V. W’s

husband is O or Q. Age of Z’s child is 5 years but the name of child is not B or E. V is wife of O.

56. What is the age of B.

a) 4 b) 6 c) 5 d) 9 e) None of these

57. What is the name of M’s wife?

a) W b) X c) Y d) Z e) None of these

58. Name of Mother, farther and age of E?

a) X, N and 6

b) V, O and 9

c) X, O and 6

d) V, N and 9

e) Can’t be determined

59. What is the name and the age of P’s child?

a) B and 6

b) E and 9

c) C and 4

d) C and 5

e) None of these

60. What are the names of Q’s wife and his child?

a) W and D

b) X and A

c) W and C

d) X and D

e) None of these

There are five married couples in a family and there is a child to every couple. Ages of

children are 3, 4, 5, 6 and 9 years. Name of males are M, N, O, P and Q. Name of children are A, B,

C, D and E. Name of females are V, W, X, Y and Z. Name of M’s child is not C and E and he is not

eldest or youngest. Age of X’s child is 6 years and her husband is one among N, O and Q. Age of D is 3 years but she is not a child of O. A’s age is multiple of 3 but she is not a child of M and V. W’s

husband is O or Q. Age of Z’s child is 5 years but the name of child is not B or E. V is wife of O.

56. What is the age of B.

a) 4 b) 6 c) 5 d) 9 e) None of these

57. What is the name of M’s wife?

a) W b) X c) Y d) Z e) None of these

58. Name of Mother, farther and age of E?

a) X, N and 6

b) V, O and 9

c) X, O and 6

d) V, N and 9

e) Can’t be determined

59. What is the name and the age of P’s child?

a) B and 6

b) E and 9

c) C and 4

d) C and 5

e) None of these

60. What are the names of Q’s wife and his child?

a) W and D

b) X and A

c) W and C

d) X and D

e) None of these

## Thursday, September 8, 2016

### Bank Preparation 249

Directions (Q. 51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the question given

below:

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends working in a call centre. Each of them has different

day offs in a week from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order. They work in three

different shifts I, II and III with at least two of them in each shift.

R works in shift II and his day off is not Sunday. P’s day off is Tuesday and he does not work

in the same shift with either Q or W. None of those who work in shift I has day off either on

Wednesday or on Friday. V works with only T in shift III. S’s day off is Sunday. V’s day off is

immediate next day of that of R’s day off. T’s day off is not on Wednesday. W’s day off is not on the

previous day of P’s day off. S works in shift I. Q does not work in the same shift with R and his day

off is not on Thursday.

51. Which of the following is W’s day off?

a) Tuesday b) Monday c) Saturday d) Data inadequate e) None of these

52. Which of the following is R’s day off?

a) Friday b) Thursday c) Tuesday d) Wednesday e) None of these

53. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift II?

a) RP b) RV c) QWS d) Data inadequate e) None of these

54. Which of the following is Q’s day off?

a) Friday b) Wednesday c) Thursday d) Monday e) None of these

55. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift I?

a) RV b) RP c) QWS d) Data inadequate e) None of these

below:

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends working in a call centre. Each of them has different

day offs in a week from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order. They work in three

different shifts I, II and III with at least two of them in each shift.

R works in shift II and his day off is not Sunday. P’s day off is Tuesday and he does not work

in the same shift with either Q or W. None of those who work in shift I has day off either on

Wednesday or on Friday. V works with only T in shift III. S’s day off is Sunday. V’s day off is

immediate next day of that of R’s day off. T’s day off is not on Wednesday. W’s day off is not on the

previous day of P’s day off. S works in shift I. Q does not work in the same shift with R and his day

off is not on Thursday.

51. Which of the following is W’s day off?

a) Tuesday b) Monday c) Saturday d) Data inadequate e) None of these

52. Which of the following is R’s day off?

a) Friday b) Thursday c) Tuesday d) Wednesday e) None of these

53. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift II?

a) RP b) RV c) QWS d) Data inadequate e) None of these

54. Which of the following is Q’s day off?

a) Friday b) Wednesday c) Thursday d) Monday e) None of these

55. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift I?

a) RV b) RP c) QWS d) Data inadequate e) None of these

## Wednesday, September 7, 2016

### Bank Preparation 248

40. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in a day?

a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 24 e) None of these

41. A boat sails 15 km of a river towards upstream in 5 hours. How long will it take to cover the

same distance downstream, if the speed of current is one-fourth the speed of the boat in still

water :

a) 1.8 h b) 3 h c) 4 h d) 5 h e) None of these

42. A man can row upstream at 8 kmph and downstream at 13 kmph. The speed of the stream is :

a) 2.5 km/hr b) 4.2 km/hr c) 5 km/hr d) 10.5 km/hr e) None of these

43. A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr,

find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream.

a) 2 hours b) 3 hours c) 4 hours d) 5 hours e) None of these

44. If a boat goes 7 km upstream in 42 minutes and the speed of the stream is 3 kmph, then the

speed of the boat in still water is :

a) 4.2 km/hr b) 9 km/hr c) 13 km/hr d) 21 km/hr e) None of these

45. A motor boat whose speed is 15 km/hr in still water goes 30 km downstream and comes back

in a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream (in km/hr) is :

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 10 e) None of these

a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 24 e) None of these

41. A boat sails 15 km of a river towards upstream in 5 hours. How long will it take to cover the

same distance downstream, if the speed of current is one-fourth the speed of the boat in still

water :

a) 1.8 h b) 3 h c) 4 h d) 5 h e) None of these

42. A man can row upstream at 8 kmph and downstream at 13 kmph. The speed of the stream is :

a) 2.5 km/hr b) 4.2 km/hr c) 5 km/hr d) 10.5 km/hr e) None of these

43. A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr,

find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream.

a) 2 hours b) 3 hours c) 4 hours d) 5 hours e) None of these

44. If a boat goes 7 km upstream in 42 minutes and the speed of the stream is 3 kmph, then the

speed of the boat in still water is :

a) 4.2 km/hr b) 9 km/hr c) 13 km/hr d) 21 km/hr e) None of these

45. A motor boat whose speed is 15 km/hr in still water goes 30 km downstream and comes back

in a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream (in km/hr) is :

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 10 e) None of these

## Tuesday, September 6, 2016

### Bank Preparation 247

31. 2 metres broad pathway is to be constructed around a rectangular plot on the inside. The area

of the plot is 96 sq. m. The rate of construction is Rs.50 per square metre. Find the total cost

of the construction.

a) Rs.2400 b) Rs.4000 c) Rs.4800 d) Data inadequate e) None of these

32. A sphere of 30 cm radius is dropped into a cylindrical vessel of 80 cmj diameter, which is

partly filled width water, then its level rises by x cm. Find x:

a) 27.5 cm b) 22.5 cm c) 18.5 cm d) Data inadequate e) None of these

33. Altitude and base of a right angle triangle are (x + 2) and (2x + 3) (in cm). If the area of the

triangle be 60 , the length of the hypotenuse is :

a) 21 cm b) 13 cm c) 17 cm d) 15 cm e) None of these

34. A rectangular lawn 60 m × 40 m has two road each 5 m wide running in the middle of it, one

parallel to length and the other parallel to breadth. The cost of graveling the roads at 80 paise

per sq. m is :

a) Rs.380 b) Rs.385 c) Rs.400 d) Data Inadequate e) None of these

35. What is the ratio of the area of larger square shaped plot to the area of the smaller square

shaped plot?

a) 17 : 1 b) 25 : 9 c) 16 : 1 d) Data inadequate e) None of these

36. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 8.30, is :

a) 80° b) 75° c) 60° d) 105° e) None of these

of the plot is 96 sq. m. The rate of construction is Rs.50 per square metre. Find the total cost

of the construction.

a) Rs.2400 b) Rs.4000 c) Rs.4800 d) Data inadequate e) None of these

32. A sphere of 30 cm radius is dropped into a cylindrical vessel of 80 cmj diameter, which is

partly filled width water, then its level rises by x cm. Find x:

a) 27.5 cm b) 22.5 cm c) 18.5 cm d) Data inadequate e) None of these

33. Altitude and base of a right angle triangle are (x + 2) and (2x + 3) (in cm). If the area of the

triangle be 60 , the length of the hypotenuse is :

a) 21 cm b) 13 cm c) 17 cm d) 15 cm e) None of these

34. A rectangular lawn 60 m × 40 m has two road each 5 m wide running in the middle of it, one

parallel to length and the other parallel to breadth. The cost of graveling the roads at 80 paise

per sq. m is :

a) Rs.380 b) Rs.385 c) Rs.400 d) Data Inadequate e) None of these

35. What is the ratio of the area of larger square shaped plot to the area of the smaller square

shaped plot?

a) 17 : 1 b) 25 : 9 c) 16 : 1 d) Data inadequate e) None of these

36. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 8.30, is :

a) 80° b) 75° c) 60° d) 105° e) None of these

## Monday, September 5, 2016

### Bank Preparation 246

26. What is the two-digit number whose first digit is a and the second digit is b ? The number is

greater than 9.

Statements:

I. The number is multiple of 51.

II. The sum of the digits a andb is 6.

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C. Either I or II is sufficient

D. Neither I nor II is sufficient

E. Both I and II are sufficient

27. What is the code for ‘sky’ in the code language?

Statements:

I. In the code language, ‘sky is clear’ is written as ‘de rafa’/

II. In the same code language, ‘make it clear’ is written as ‘de gajo’

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C. Either I or II is sufficient

D. Neither I nor II is sufficient

E. Both I and II are sufficient

28. How many children are there between P and Q in a row of children?

Statements:

I. P is 15th from the left in the row.

II. Q is exactly in the middle and there are ten children towards his right.

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C. Either I or II is sufficient

D. Neither I nor II is sufficient

E. Both I and II are sufficient

29. How is T related to K?

Statements:

I. R’s sister J has married T’s brother L, who is the only son of his parents.

II. K is the only daughter of L and J.

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C. Either I or II is sufficient

D. Neither I nor II is sufficient

E. Both I and II are sufficient

30. How is J related to P?

Statements:

I. M is brother of P and T is sister of P.

II. P’s mother is married to J’s husband who has one son and two daughters.

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C. Either I or II is sufficient

D. Neither I nor II is sufficient

E. Both I and II are sufficient

greater than 9.

Statements:

I. The number is multiple of 51.

II. The sum of the digits a andb is 6.

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C. Either I or II is sufficient

D. Neither I nor II is sufficient

E. Both I and II are sufficient

27. What is the code for ‘sky’ in the code language?

Statements:

I. In the code language, ‘sky is clear’ is written as ‘de rafa’/

II. In the same code language, ‘make it clear’ is written as ‘de gajo’

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C. Either I or II is sufficient

D. Neither I nor II is sufficient

E. Both I and II are sufficient

28. How many children are there between P and Q in a row of children?

Statements:

I. P is 15th from the left in the row.

II. Q is exactly in the middle and there are ten children towards his right.

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C. Either I or II is sufficient

D. Neither I nor II is sufficient

E. Both I and II are sufficient

29. How is T related to K?

Statements:

I. R’s sister J has married T’s brother L, who is the only son of his parents.

II. K is the only daughter of L and J.

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C. Either I or II is sufficient

D. Neither I nor II is sufficient

E. Both I and II are sufficient

30. How is J related to P?

Statements:

I. M is brother of P and T is sister of P.

II. P’s mother is married to J’s husband who has one son and two daughters.

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C. Either I or II is sufficient

D. Neither I nor II is sufficient

E. Both I and II are sufficient

## Sunday, September 4, 2016

### Bank Preparation 245

Directions (Q. 95-99) Read the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

There are 2500 people in a village. 1375 people of this village speak only local language. 200

people of the village speak English along with local language. Number of people speaking Hindi

along with local language is 625. 300 people of the village speak three languages, i.e., English, Hindi

and local language.

95. Number of people speaking English as one language is what percent of the total number of

people of the village?

a) 12 b) 8 c) 20 d) 18 e) None of these

96. Number of people speaking only local language is what percent of the total number of people

of the village?

a) 45 b) 55 c) 58 d) 40 e) None of these

97. Number of people speaking Hindi as one language is approximately what percent of the

number of people speaking only local language?

a) 67 b) 70 c) 61 d) 59 e) 63

98. What is the respective ratio of the number of people speaking all the three languages to the

number of people speaking both Hindi and local language?

a) 12:55 b) 10:25 c) 14:55 d) 12:25 e) None of these

99. If 25 more people speaking all the three languages and 45 more people speaking both Hindi

and local languages start living in the village then what will be the difference between the

number of people speaking all the three languages and the number of people speaking both

Hindi and local languages?

a) 325 b) 330 c) 340

d) 355 e) None of these

100. Aman’s expense is 30% more than Vimal’s expense and Vimal’s expense is 10% less

than Raman’s expense. If the sum of their expenses is Rs.6447, then what would be the

Aman’s expense?

a) Rs.2200 b) Rs.2457 c) Rs.1890

d) Rs.2100 e) None of these

There are 2500 people in a village. 1375 people of this village speak only local language. 200

people of the village speak English along with local language. Number of people speaking Hindi

along with local language is 625. 300 people of the village speak three languages, i.e., English, Hindi

and local language.

95. Number of people speaking English as one language is what percent of the total number of

people of the village?

a) 12 b) 8 c) 20 d) 18 e) None of these

96. Number of people speaking only local language is what percent of the total number of people

of the village?

a) 45 b) 55 c) 58 d) 40 e) None of these

97. Number of people speaking Hindi as one language is approximately what percent of the

number of people speaking only local language?

a) 67 b) 70 c) 61 d) 59 e) 63

98. What is the respective ratio of the number of people speaking all the three languages to the

number of people speaking both Hindi and local language?

a) 12:55 b) 10:25 c) 14:55 d) 12:25 e) None of these

99. If 25 more people speaking all the three languages and 45 more people speaking both Hindi

and local languages start living in the village then what will be the difference between the

number of people speaking all the three languages and the number of people speaking both

Hindi and local languages?

a) 325 b) 330 c) 340

d) 355 e) None of these

100. Aman’s expense is 30% more than Vimal’s expense and Vimal’s expense is 10% less

than Raman’s expense. If the sum of their expenses is Rs.6447, then what would be the

Aman’s expense?

a) Rs.2200 b) Rs.2457 c) Rs.1890

d) Rs.2100 e) None of these

## Saturday, September 3, 2016

### Bank Preparation 244

91. Rohit invested some amount at the rate of 6 pcpa and at the end of 3 years he got Rs.8730

simple interest. How much compound interest he will get on same amount and same rate of

interest after 2 years?

a) Rs.5820 b) Rs.5949.60 c) Rs.5900 d) Rs.5994.60 e) None of these

92. Car A runs at the speed of 65 km/h and reaches its destination in 8 h. What is the respective

ratio of distances covered by Car A and Car B?

a) 11:7 b) 7:13 c) 13:7 d) 7:11 e) None of these

93. The ratio of students in school A, B and C is 5:4:7 respectively. If number of students in

schools are increased by 20%, 25% and 20% respectively then what will be the ratio of

students in school A, B and C respectively?

a) 5:5:7 b) 30:25:42 c) 30:20:49 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

94. In a class, the average height of 35 girls was measured 160 cm. Later on, it was discovered

that the height of one of the girl was misread as 144 cm, while her actual height was 104 cm.

What was the actual average height of girls in the class? (rounded off to two digits after

decimal)

a) 159.86 cm b) 158.54 cm c) 159.56 cm d) 158.74 cm e) None of these

simple interest. How much compound interest he will get on same amount and same rate of

interest after 2 years?

a) Rs.5820 b) Rs.5949.60 c) Rs.5900 d) Rs.5994.60 e) None of these

92. Car A runs at the speed of 65 km/h and reaches its destination in 8 h. What is the respective

ratio of distances covered by Car A and Car B?

a) 11:7 b) 7:13 c) 13:7 d) 7:11 e) None of these

93. The ratio of students in school A, B and C is 5:4:7 respectively. If number of students in

schools are increased by 20%, 25% and 20% respectively then what will be the ratio of

students in school A, B and C respectively?

a) 5:5:7 b) 30:25:42 c) 30:20:49 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

94. In a class, the average height of 35 girls was measured 160 cm. Later on, it was discovered

that the height of one of the girl was misread as 144 cm, while her actual height was 104 cm.

What was the actual average height of girls in the class? (rounded off to two digits after

decimal)

a) 159.86 cm b) 158.54 cm c) 159.56 cm d) 158.74 cm e) None of these

## Friday, September 2, 2016

### Bank Preparation 243

86. A man crosses a stationary train in 12 min. The same train crosses a man in 54 s. What was

the respective ratio between the speed of the train and the man?

a) 40:7 b) 400:3 c) 40:3 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

87. If a number is subtracted by 2/3rd of 75% of 600, the value so obtained is 320. What is the

number?

a) 300 b) 620 c) 720 d) 500 e) None of these

88. The ratio between the angles of a quadrilateral is 7:2:5:6 respectively. What is the sum of

double the smallest angle and half the largest angle to the quadrilateral?

a) 162˚ b) 198˚ c) 99˚ d) 135˚ e) None of these

89. 3 men can complete a piece of work in 6 days. 5 women can complete the same work in 18

days. In how many days will 4 men and 10 women together complete the same work?

a) 3 days b) 5 days c) 2 days d) 4 days e) None of these

90. The sum of five consecutive numbers is 270. What is the sum of the second and the fifth

number?

a) 108 b) 107 c) 110 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

the respective ratio between the speed of the train and the man?

a) 40:7 b) 400:3 c) 40:3 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

87. If a number is subtracted by 2/3rd of 75% of 600, the value so obtained is 320. What is the

number?

a) 300 b) 620 c) 720 d) 500 e) None of these

88. The ratio between the angles of a quadrilateral is 7:2:5:6 respectively. What is the sum of

double the smallest angle and half the largest angle to the quadrilateral?

a) 162˚ b) 198˚ c) 99˚ d) 135˚ e) None of these

89. 3 men can complete a piece of work in 6 days. 5 women can complete the same work in 18

days. In how many days will 4 men and 10 women together complete the same work?

a) 3 days b) 5 days c) 2 days d) 4 days e) None of these

90. The sum of five consecutive numbers is 270. What is the sum of the second and the fifth

number?

a) 108 b) 107 c) 110 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

## Thursday, September 1, 2016

### Bank Preparation 242

Directions (Q. 71-75) Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

In a school there are 1200 students who have visited five different cities viz. Delhi, Kolkata,

Varanasi, Mumbai and Jodhpur. 45% of the total students are boys. 30% of the total girls visited

Mumbai. 2/5th of the total girls visited Delhi. Number of girls who visited Jodhpur is half of the girls

visited Delhi. 2/3rd of the remaining girls visited Kolkata. Total number of students who visited

Mumbai is 300. 20% of the total boys visited Delhi. 40% of the total boys visited Jodhpur. Equal

number of boys visited Kolkata and Varanasi.

71. What is the total number of students who visited Varanasi?

a) 78 b) 69 c) 102 d) 103 e) None of these

72. What is the respective ratio between the number of girls visited Kolkata and number of boys

visited Mumbai?

a) 22:51 b) 23:51 c) 21:55 d) 51:22 e) None of these

73. Total number of students who visited Jodhpur is approximately what percent of number of

girls who visited Delhi?

a) 111 b) 91 c) 132 d) 32 e) 72

74. What is the average number of boys who visited Kolkata, Varanasi and Jodhpur together?

a) 110 b) 122 c) 101 d) 104 e) None of these

75. What is the total number of girls who visited Delhi, Mumbai and Varanasi together?

a) 464 b) 484 c) 536 d) 556 e) None of these

In a school there are 1200 students who have visited five different cities viz. Delhi, Kolkata,

Varanasi, Mumbai and Jodhpur. 45% of the total students are boys. 30% of the total girls visited

Mumbai. 2/5th of the total girls visited Delhi. Number of girls who visited Jodhpur is half of the girls

visited Delhi. 2/3rd of the remaining girls visited Kolkata. Total number of students who visited

Mumbai is 300. 20% of the total boys visited Delhi. 40% of the total boys visited Jodhpur. Equal

number of boys visited Kolkata and Varanasi.

71. What is the total number of students who visited Varanasi?

a) 78 b) 69 c) 102 d) 103 e) None of these

72. What is the respective ratio between the number of girls visited Kolkata and number of boys

visited Mumbai?

a) 22:51 b) 23:51 c) 21:55 d) 51:22 e) None of these

73. Total number of students who visited Jodhpur is approximately what percent of number of

girls who visited Delhi?

a) 111 b) 91 c) 132 d) 32 e) 72

74. What is the average number of boys who visited Kolkata, Varanasi and Jodhpur together?

a) 110 b) 122 c) 101 d) 104 e) None of these

75. What is the total number of girls who visited Delhi, Mumbai and Varanasi together?

a) 464 b) 484 c) 536 d) 556 e) None of these

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