Sunday, July 31, 2016

Bank Preparation 213

91. What is the total number of men and children staying in locality I together?
a) 4115 b) 4551 c) 4515 d) 4155 e) None of these

92. The number of women staying in which locality is the highest?
a) H b) J c) F d) G e) None of these

93. What is the total number of children staying in localities H and I together?
a) 1287 b) 1278 c) 1827 d) 1728 e) None of these

94. What is the respective ratio of number of men staying in locality F to the number of men
staying in locality H?
a) 517 : 416 b) 403 : 522 c) 416 : 517 d) 522 : 403 e) None of these

95. Total number of people staying in locality J forms approximately what percent of the total
number of people staying in locality F?
a) 81 b) 72 c) 78 d) 93 e) 87

Saturday, July 30, 2016

Bank Preparation 212

76. In which year did the highest number of candidates clear the entrance exam from State D?
a) 2008 b) 2006 c) 2009 d) 2007 e) None of these

77. What is the respective ratio of total number of candidates clearing the entrance exam from
State B in the year 2004 to those clearing the entrance exam from State C in the same year?
a) 221 : 148 b) 218 : 143 c) 148 : 221 d) 143 : 218 e) None of these

78. What is the total number of candidates clearing the entrance exam from States E and F
together in the year 2006?
a) 16160 b) 110660 c) 1.1066 d) 1106600 e) None of these

79. What is the average number of candidates appearing for the entrance exam from State D in
the years 2007, 2008 and 2009 together?
a) 1.907-2/3 b) 18666-1/3 c) 1.866-1/3 d) 190666-2/3 e) None of these

80. What is the number of candidates not clearing the entrance exam from State A in the year
2007?
a) 186820 b) 11682 c) 1868200 d) 116820 e) None of these

Friday, July 29, 2016

Bank Preparation 211

56. The number of candidates appearing for the exam from city C is what percent of the number
of candidates appearing for the exam from city B? (rounded off to be nearest integer)
a) 27 b) 34 c) 42 d) 21 e) 38

57. What is the number of candidates passing in the exam from city E?
a) 13000 b) 1110000 c) 113000 d) 11000 e) None of these

58. What is the respective ratio of the number of candidates failing in the exam from city D to
those failing in the exam from city A?
a) 289 : 42 b) 42 : 289 c) 227 : 50 d) 50 : 227 e) None of these

59. Number of candidates passing in the exam from city F is what percent of the total number of
candidates appearing from all the cities together? (rounded off to two digits after the decimal)
a) 12.93 b) 14.46 c) 10.84 d) 11.37 e) None of these

60. Which city has the highest number of students failing in the entrance exam?
a) F b) C c) G d) D e) None of these

Thursday, July 28, 2016

Bank Preparation 210

51. What is the total amount earned by Store C through the sale of M and O type products
together?
a) Rs.2719.2 Lakh
b) Rs.271.92 Lakh
c) Rs.2.7192 Lakh
d) Rs.27.192 Lakh
e) None of these

52. Number of L type product sold by Store F is what percent of the number same type of
products sold by Store E?
a) 76.33 b) 124 c) 83.33 d) 115 e) None of these

53. What is the difference in the amount earned by Store A through the sale of P type products
and that earned by Store B through the sale of Q type products?
a) Rs.38.4 Lakh b) Rs.0.384 Lakh c) Rs.3.84 Lakh d) Rs.384 Lakh e) None of these

54. What is the respective ratio of total number of N and L type products together sold by Store D
and the same products sold by Store A?
a) 119 : 104 b) 102 : 115 c) 104 : 115 d) 117 : 103 e) None of these

55. What is the average price per product charged by all the Stores together for product Q?
a) Rs.14700 b) Rs.15700 c) Rs.15200 d) Rs.14800 e) None of these

Wednesday, July 27, 2016

Bank Preparation 209

Directions (Q. 46-50) In these questions, relationships between different elements is shown in the
statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions
Mark answer if
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either conclusion I or II follows
d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
e) Both conclusions I and II follow

46. Statement: W ≥ D < M < P < A = F
Conclusions: I. F > d
II. P < W

47. Statement: H ≥ M > F < A = B > S
Conclusions: I. H > B
II. F < S

48. Statement: B > T > Q > R = F
Conclusions: I. Q ≥ F
II. T > F

49. Statement: S = R ≥ Q, P < Q
Conclusions: I. S ≥ P
II. R > P

50. Statement: S ≥ M < Y = Z > F > T
Conclusions: I. S > F
II. Y > T

Tuesday, July 26, 2016

Bank Preparation 208

Directions (Q. 41-45) The following questions consist of two words each, that have a certain
relationship with each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the letter pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

41. Pen : Write
a) Knife : Plate b) Chair : Table c) Oar : Row d) Worker : Factory e) None of these

42. Book : Chapter
a) Pen : Pencil b) Computer : Calculator c) Mobile : Landline d) House : Room e) None of these

43. Chair : Wood : : ?
a) Book : Print b) Mirror : Glass c) Plate : Food d) Purse : Money e) None of these

44. Agra : TajMahal
a) Delhi :HawaMahal b) Patna : Red Fort c) Gaya : Golghar d) Amritsar : Golden Temple e) None of these

45. Animal : Zoology
a) Body : Physiology b) Disease : Bacteriology c) Poems : Anthology d) Man : Philanthropy e) None of these

Monday, July 25, 2016

Bank Preparation 207

Directions (Q. 36-40) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to
distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which
are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of
minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial
aspect of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You
have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument?

Give answer:
(a) If only argument I is strong
(b) If only argument II is strong
(c) If either I or II is strong
(d) If neither I nor II is strong
(e) If both I and II are strong

36. Statement: Should school education be made free in India?
Arguments: I. Yes, this is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
II. No, it will add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.

37. Statement: Should there be complete ban on manufacture of fire crackers in India?
Arguments: I. No, this will render thousands of workers jobless.
II. Yes, the fire cracker manufacturers use child labour to a large extent.

38. Statement: Should young entrepreneurs be encouraged?
Arguments: I. Yes, they will help in the industrial development of the country.
II. Yes, they will reduce the burden on the employment market.

39. Statement: Should luxury hotels be banned in India?
Arguments: I. Yes, these are places from where international criminals operate.
II. No, affluent foreign tourists will have no place to stay.

40. Statement: Should there be uniforms for students in the colleges in India as in the
schools?
I. Yes, this will improve the ambience of the colleges as all the students will
be decently dressed.
II. No, college students should not be regimented and they should be left to
choose their clothes for coming to college.

Sunday, July 24, 2016

Bank Preparation 206

Directions (Q. 28-35) Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the questions.

Give answer
(a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in Statement I alone or Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
(d) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both the Statements I and II are together necessary to answer the question.

28. How will ‘walk’ be written in a certain code?
I. In this code ‘morning walk is good’ is written as ‘na pa ta sa’.
II. In this code ‘wish you good morning’ is written as ‘lanasa da’.

29. What is the code of ‘market’?
I. ‘do not go’ is coded as ‘ka ma tok’.
II. ‘go to market’ is code as ‘ma jo la’.

30. Which of the following means ‘very’ in a certain code language?
I. ‘pitjo ha’ means ‘very good boy’ in that code language.
II. ‘jona pa’ means ‘she is good’ in that code language.

31. In a code language, ‘al ed hop’ means ‘we play chess’.
What is the code of word ‘chess’?
I. ‘idnimhop’ means ‘we are honest’.
II. ‘gobots al’ means ‘they play cricket’.

32. In a certain code language, ‘146’ means ‘adopt good habits’. What is the code of ‘habit’ in
that language?
I. ‘473’ means ‘like good pictures’.
II. ‘826’ means ‘passion becomes habits’.

33. How will ‘must’ be written in a certain code?
I. In that code language, ‘you must see’ is written as ‘la pa ni’ and ‘did you see’ is written
as ‘joni pa’.
II. In that code language ‘you did that’ is written as ‘pa sijo’.

34. What is the code of ‘fat’ in a certain code language?
I. In that code language, ‘she is fat’ is written as ‘heraca’.
II. In that code language, ‘fat boy’ is written as ‘raka’.

35. How is ‘call’ written in a code language?
I. ‘call me back’ is written as ‘531’ in that code language.
II. ‘you can call me any time’ is written as ‘94163’ in that code language.

Saturday, July 23, 2016

Bank Preparation 205

Directions (Q. 21-27) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
A group of seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G work as Economist, Agriculture Officer, IT
Officer, Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex Officer and Research Analyst for banks L, M, N, P, Q, R
and S but not necessarily in the same order. C works for bank N and is neither a Research Analyst nor
Clerk. E is an IT Officer and works for bank R. A works as a Forex Officer and does not work for
bank L or Q.The one who is an Agriculture Officer works for bank M. The one who works for bank L
works as a Terminal Operator. F works for bank Q. G works for bank P as a Research Analyst. D is
not an Agriculture Officer.

21. Who amongst the following works as an Agriculture Officer?
a) C b) B c) F d) D e) None of these

22. For which bank does D work?
a) Q b) L c) N d) S e) None of these

23. What is the profession of C?
a) Terminal Operator b) Agriculture Officer c) Economist d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

24. Who amongst the following works as a Clerk?
a) C b) B c) F d) D e) None of these

25. Which of the following combinations of person, profession and bank is correct?
a) A-Forex Officer-M
b) D-Clerk-L
c) F-Agriculture Officer-Q
d) B-Agriculture Officer-S
e) None of these

26. What is the profession of the person who works for bank S?
a) Clerk
b) Agriculture Officer
c) Terminal Operator
d) Forex Officer
e) None of these

27. For which bank does B work?
a) M b) S c) L d) Either M or S e) None of these

Friday, July 22, 2016

Bank Preparation 204

Directions (Q. 16-20) Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below. A word
and number arrangement machine when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular
rule. The following is the illustration of input and the steps of arrangement.
Input: 15 give not hot 45 33 for
Step I: for give not hot 45 33 15
Step II: for not give hot 33 45 15
Step III: 15 not give hot 33 45 for
Step IV: 15 give not hot 45 33 for
Step V: for give not hot 45 33 15

16. If ’19 36 43 50 31 2 25’ is the input, then find out the step IV.
a) 43 19 36 50 31 22 25
b) 25 22 31 50 43 36 19
c) 50 31 22 25 43 36 19
d) 19 36 43 50 31 22 25
e) None of these

17. If ‘rat cat fat chat that hat mat’ is the step II, then what would be the input?
a) mat fat cat chat hat that rat
b) chat mat fat cat rat that hat
c) fat mat chat cat rat hat that
d) that hat rat cat chat mat fat
e) None of these

18. If input is ’16 nine 32 ten two five six’, then find step V.
a) 32 ten two five 16 nine six
b) 32 six ten two five 16 nine
c) six nine 32 ten two five 16
d) 16 five two ten 32 nine six
e) None of these

19. We have step V as ’24 99 100 121 fine wine dine’, then what would be the step II?
a) 24 100 99 121 wine fine dine
b) dine fine wine 24 100 99 121
c) wine fine dine 24 100 99 121
d) 121 99 100 24 dine fine wine
e) None of these

20. Step III ’39 40 41 59 35 tap map’. Find the input?
a) map 41 40 59 tap 35 39
b) 39 35 tap 59 40 41 map
c) tap 41 40 59 map 35 39
d) tap map 39 35 59 40 41
e) None of these

Thursday, July 21, 2016

Bank Preparation 203

Directions (Q. 11-15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Following are the conditions for selecting Manager-HR in an organization
(i) Be at least 30 years and not more than 35 years as on 1st March 2012.
(ii) Have secured at least 60% marks in graduation in any discipline.
(iii) Have secured at least 65% in the post-graduate degree/diploma in personnel
management/HR.
(iv) Have post qualification work experience of at least five years in the personnel/HR
department of an organization.
(v) Have secured at least 50% marks in the selection process.

However, in the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except
(a) (ii) above but has secured at least 55% marks in graduation in any discipline and at least 70%
marks in post-graduate degree/diploma in personnel management/HR, the case is to be
referred to GM-HR.
(b) (iv) above but has post qualification work experience of at least four years out of which at
least two years as Deputy Manager-HR, the case is to be referred to President-HR.
In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following
courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and subconditions given
above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume
anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as
on 01st March 2012.

Give answer:
(a) If the candidate is not to be selected
(b) If the data provided are not adequate to take a decision
(c) If the case is to be referred to President-HR
(d) If the case is to be referred to GM-HR
(e) If the candidate is to be selected

11. Rita Bhatt was born on 25th July, 1978. She has secured 62% marks in graduation and 65%
marks in post-graduate diploma in management. She has been working for the past 6 years in
the personnel department of an organization after completing her post-graduation. She has
secured 55% marks in the selection process.

12. Ashok Pradhan was born on 08th August 1980. He has been working in the personnel
department of an organization for the past 4 years after completing his post-graduate degree
in personnel management with 67%. Out of his entire experience, he has been working for the
past 2 years as Deputy Manager-HR. He has secured 62% marks in graduation and 58%
marks in the selection process.

13. Alokverma was born on 04th March, 1976. He has been working in the personnel department
of an organization for the past 6 years after completing his post-graduate diploma in
personnel management with 66% marks. He has secured 57% marks in the selection process
and 63% marks in graduation.

14. SwapanGhosh has been working in the personnel department of an organization for the past 5
years after completing his post-graduate degree in HR with 72% marks. He has secured 56%
marks in graduation. He was born on 12th May 1977. He has secured 58% marks in the
selection process.

15. SeemaBehl has been working in the personnel department of an organization for the past 7
years after completing her post-graduate diploma in personnel management with 70% marks. She was born on 05th July, 1979. She has secured 65% marks in graduation and 50% marks in
the selection process.

Wednesday, July 20, 2016

Bank Preparation 202

Directions (Q. 6-10) Read the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
V, U and T are sitting around a circle. A, B and C are sitting around the same circle but two
of them are not facing centre (they are facing the direction opposite to centre). V is 2nd to the left of C. U is 2nd to the right of A. B is 3rd to the left of T. C is 2nd to the right of T. A and C are not sitting
together.
6. Which of the following is not facing centre?
a) BA b) CA c) BC d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

7. Which of the following is the position of T in respect of B?
a) 3rd to the right
b) 2nd to the right
c) 3rd to the left
d) 3rd to the left or right
e) None of these

8. What is the position of V in respect of C?
a) 2nd to the right
b) 3rd to the left
c) 4th to the right
d) 4th to the left
e) Can’t be determined

9. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) A, B and C are sitting together
b) V, U and T are sitting together
c) Sitting arrangement of two persons cannot be determined
d) Those who are not facing centre are sitting together
e) Only two people are sitting between V and T

10. What is the position of A in respect of U?
a) 2nd to the left
b) 2nd to the right
c) 3rd to the right
d) Can’t be determined
e) None of these

Tuesday, July 19, 2016

Bank Preparation 201

1. Introducing Alka to guests, Brijesh said, “Her father is the only son of my father”. How is
Alka related to Brijesh?
a) Daughter b) Mother c) Sister d) Niece e) None of these

2. How much angular distance will be covered by the minute hand of a correct clock in a period
of 2 hours 20 min.?
a) 140˚ b) 840˚ c) 320˚ d) 520˚ e) None of these

3. First day of a leap year is Wednesday, then what day of the week was it on 31st December in
that year?
a) Thursday b) Saturday c) Monday d) Friday e) None of these

4. Neeraj wants to go to school from his house. First of all he goes to the crossing, from here he
turns to right and reaches the bus stand, Bus stand is opposite to the library. In which
direction is school locate?
a) North b) East c) West d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

5. There are five different houses, A to E, in a row. A is to the right of B and E is to the left of C
and right of A, B is to the right of D. Which of the houses is in the middle?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these

Monday, July 18, 2016

Bank Preparation 200

Directions (Q. 91-100) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and againsteach, five words/phrases are suggested, one
of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Greenhouse gases are only (91) of the story when it comes to global warming. Changes to one
part of the climate system can (92) additional changes to the way the planet absorbs or reflects energy. These secondary changes are (93) climate feedbacks, and they could more than double the amount of warming caused by carbon dioxide alone. The primary feedbacks are (94) to snow and ice, water vapour, clouds and the carbon cycle. Perhaps the most well (95) feedback comes from melting snow and ice in the Northern Hemisphere. Warming temperatures are already (96) a growing percentage of Arctic sea ice, exposing dark ocean water during the (97) sunlight of summer. Snow cover on land is also (98) in many areas. In the (99) of snow and ice, these areas go from having bright, sunlight reflecting surfaces that cool the planet to having dark, sunlight absorbing surfaces that (100) more energy into the Earth system and cause more warming.

91. a) whole b) part c) material d) issue e) most
92. a) raise b) brings c) refer d) stop e) cause
93. a) sensed b) called c) nothing d) but e) term
94. a) due b) results c) reason d) those e) because
95. a) done b) known c) ruled d) bestowed e) said
96. a) mastering b) sending c) melting d) calming e) increasing
97. a) make-shift b) ceasing c) troubled d) perpetual e) absent
98. a) dwindling b) manufactured c) descending d) generating e) supplied
99. a) progress b) reduced c) existence d) midst e) absence
100. a) repel b) waft c) monitor d) bring e) access 

Sunday, July 17, 2016

Bank Preparation 199

Directions (Q. 81-85) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or
idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (5) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

81. The area was plunged into (1) / darkness mid a wave of (2) / cheering and shouting (3) /
slogans like ‘Save The Earth’. (4) No error (5)

82. The poll contestants approached (1) the commission complaining that the hoardings (2) /
violated the code of conduct (3) / and influenced public perception. (4) No error (5)

83. The country has (1) / adequate laws but problems (2) / arise when these are not (3) /
implemented in letter and spirit. (4) / No error (5)

84. The management feels that (1) / the employees of the organisation are (2) / non-productive,
and do not want (3) / to work hard (4) / No error

85. As far the issue of land encroachment (1) / in villages is concerned, people will (2) / have to
make a start from their villages by (3) / sensitising and educating the villagers this issue. (4)
No error (5)

Saturday, July 16, 2016

Bank Preparation 198

Directions (Q. 66-70) In each questions below is given a statement followed by three courses of
action numbered (A), (B) and (C). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken
for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the
information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then
decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

66. Statement: Many political activists have decided to stage demonstrations and block traffic
movement in the city during peak hours to protest against the steep rise in prices of essential
commodities.

Courses of action
(A) The government should immediately ban all forms of agitationsin the country.
(B) The police authority of the city should deploy additional forces all over the city to help traffic
movement in the city.
(C) The state administration should carry out preventive arrests of the known criminals staying in
the city.

a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Only (A) and (B) e) None of these

67. Statement: The school dropout rate in many districts in the state has increased sharply during
the last few years as the parents of these children make them work in the fields owned by
others to earn enough for them to get at least one meal a day.

Courses of action
(A) The government should put up a mechanism to provide foodgrains to the poor people in these
districts through public distribution system to encourage the parents to send their wards to
school.
(B) The government should close down some of these schools in the district and deploy the
teachers of these schools to nearby schools and also ask remaining students to join these
schools.
(C) The government should issue arrest warrants for all the parents who force their children to
work in fields instead of attending classes.

a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Only (A) and (B) e) None of these

68. Statement: A large private bank has decided to retrench one-third of its employees in view of
the huge losses incurred by it during the past three quarters.

Courses of action
(A) The government should issue a notification to general public to immediately stop all
transactions with the bank.
(B) The government should direct the bank to refrain from retrenching its employees.
(C) The government should ask the central bank of the country to initiate an enquiry into the
bank’s activities and submit its report.

a) None b) Only (A) c) Only (B) d) Only (C) e) None of these

69. Statement: One aspirant was killed due to stampede while participating in a recruitment
drive of police constables.

Courses of action
(A) The officials incharge of the recruitment process should immediately be suspended.
(B) A team of officials should be asked to find out the circumstances which led to the death of the
aspirant and submit its report within a week.
(C) The government should ask the home department to stagger the number of aspirants over
more number of days to avoid such incidents in future.

a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Only (B) and (C) e) None of these

70. Statement: A heavy unseasonal downpour during the last two days has paralysed the normal
life in the state in which five persons were killed but this has provided a huge relief to the
problem of acute water crisis in the state.

Courses of action
(A) The state government should set up a committee to review the alarming situation.
(B) The state government should immediately remove all therestrictions on use of potable water
in all the major cities in the state.
(C) The state government shouldsend relief supplies to all the affected areas in the state.

a) None b) Only (A) c) Only (B) and (C) d) Only (C) e) All (A), (B) and (C)

Friday, July 15, 2016

Bank Preparation 197

Directions (Q. 61-65) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-Credit in bank. The candidate must
(i) Be a Graduate in any discipline with at least 60% marks.
(ii) Have post qualification work experience of at least 10 years in the Advances Section of a
bank.
(iii) Be at least 30 years and not more than 40 years as on 01.04.2010.
(iv) Have secured at least 40% marks in the group discussion.
(v) Have secured at least 50% marks in inverview.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions

Except
(a) At (i) above but has secured at least 50% marks in graduation and at least 60% marks in post
graduation in and discipline the case is to be referred to the General Manager-Advances.
(b) At (ii) above but has total post qualification work experience of at least seven years out of
which at least three years as Manager-Credit in a bank, the case is to be referred to Executive
Director.
In each question, below details of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following
courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given
above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything
other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on
01.04.2010.

Give answer (a) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
Give answer (b) if the case is to be referred to General Manager-Advances.
Give answer (c) if the data are inadequate to take a decision.
Give answer (d) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Give answer (e) if the candidate is to be selected.

61. Prakash Gokhale was born on 4th August 1977. He has secured 65% marks in post graduation
and 58% marks in graduation. He has been working for the past 10 years in the Advances
Department of a bank after completing his post graduation. He has secured 45% marks in the
group discussion and 50% marks in the interview.

62. Amit Narayan was born on 28th May 1974. He has been working in the Advances Department
of a bank for the past 11 years after completing his B.Sc. degree with 65% marks. He has
secured 55% marks in group discussion and 50% marks in the interview.

63. Shobha Gupta has secured 50% marks in the interview and 40% marks in the group
discussion. She has been working for the past eight years out of which four years as Manager-
Credit in a bank after completing her B.A. degree with 60% marks. She was born on 12th
September, 1978.

64. Rohan Maskare was born on 8th March 1974. He has been working in a bank for the past 12
years after completing his B.Com degree with 70% marks. He has secured 50% marks in both
the group discussion and the interview.

65. Sudha Mehrotra has been working in the Advances Department of a bank for the past 12
years after completing her B.Com. degree with 60% marks. She has secured 50% marks in
the group discussion and 40% marks in the interview. She was born on 15th February 1972.

Thursday, July 14, 2016

Bank Preparation 196

Directions (Q. 56-60) In the following questions, the symbols @, $, *, # and ! are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P ! Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
four conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are dfinitely true and give your answer
accordingly.

56. Statements: N ! B, B $ W, W # H, H * M
Conclusions: I. M @ W
II. H @ N
III. W ! N
IV. W # N

a) Only I is true
b) Only III is true
c) Only IV is true
d) Only either III or IV is true
e) Only either III or IV and I are true

57. Statements: R * D, D $ J, J # M, M @ K
Conclusions: I. K # J
II. D @ M
III. R # M
IV. D @ K

a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only IV is true

58. Statements: H @ T, T # F, F ! E, E * V
Conclusions: I. V $ F
II. E @ T
III. H @ V
IV. T # V

a) Only I, II and III are true
b) Only I, II and IV are true
c) Only II, III and IV are true
d) Only I, III and IV are true
e) All I, II, III and IV are true

59. Statements: D # R, R * K, K @ F, F $ J
Conclusions: I. J # R
II. J # K
III. R # F
IV. K @ D

a) Only I, II and III are true
b) Only II, III and IV are true
c) Only I, III and IV are true
d) All I, II, III and IV are true
e) None of these

60. Statements: M $ K, K @ N, N * R, R # W
Conclusions: I. W @ K
II. M $ R
III. K @ W
IV. M @ N

a) Only I and II are true
b) Only I, II and III are true
c) Only III and IV are true
d) Only II, III and IV are true
e) None of these

Wednesday, July 13, 2016

Bank Preparation 195

Directions (Q. 51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight employees of an organization working in three
departments viz. Personnel, Administration and Marketing with not more than three of them in any
department. Each of them has a different choice of sports from Football, Cricket, Volleyball,
Badminton, Lawn Tennis, Basketball, Hockey and Table Tennis not necessarily in the same order.
D works in Administration and does not like either Football or Cricket. F works in Personnel
with only A who likes Table Tennis. E and H do not work in the same department as D. C likes
Hockey and does not work in Marketing. G does not work in Administration and does not like either
Cricket or Badminton. One of those who work in Administration likes Football. The one who likes
Volleyball works in Personnel. None of those who work in Administration likes either Badminton or
Lawn Tennis. H does not like Cricket.

51. Which of the following groups of employees work in Administration department?
a) EGH b) AF c) BCD d) BGD e) Data inadequate

52. In which department does E work?
a) Personnel b) Marketing c) Administration d) Data inadequate e) None of these

53. What is E’s favourite sport?
a) Cricket b) Badminton c) Basketball d) Lawn Tennis e) None of these

54. Which of the following combinations of employees-department-favourite sport is correct?
a) E-Administration-Cricket
b) F-Personnel-Lawn Tennis
c) H-Marketing-Lawn Tennis
d) B-Administration-Table Tennis
e) None of these

55. What is G’s favourite sport?
a) Cricket b) Badminton c) Basketball d) Lawn Tennis e) None of these

Tuesday, July 12, 2016

Bank Preparation 194

Directions (Q. 46-50) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which
of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known
facts.
46. Statements: All cups are bottles.
Some bottles are jugs.
No jug is plate.
Some plates are tables.

Conclusions: I. Some tables are bottles.
II. Some plates are cups.
III. No table is bottle.
IV. Some jugs are cups.

a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only IV follows
e) Only either I or III follows

47. Statements: All birds are horses.
All horses are tigers.
Some tigers are lions.
Some lions are monkeys.

Conclusions: I. Some tigers are horses.
II. Some monkeys are birds.
III. Some tigers are birds.
IV. Some monkeys are horses.

a) Only I and III follow
b) Only I, II and III follow
c) Only II, III and IV follow
d) All I, II, III and IV follow
e) None of these

48. Statements: Some chairs are handles.
All handles are pots.
All pots are mats.
Some mats are buses.

Conclusions: I. Some buses are handles.
II. Some mats are chairs.
III. No bus is handle.
IV. Some mats are handles.

a) Only I, II and IV follow
b) Only II, III and IV follow
c) Only either I or III and II follow
d) Only either I or III and IV follow
e) Only either I or III and II and IV follow

49. Statements: Some sticks are lamps.
Some flowers are lamps.
Some lamps are dresses.
All dresses are shirts.

Conclusions: I. Some shirts are sticks.
II. Some shirts are flowers.
III. Some flowers are sticks.
IV. Some dresses are sticks.

a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only IV follows

50. Statements: Some benches are walls.
All walls are houses.
Some houses are jungles.
All jungles are roads.

Conclusions: I. Some roads are benches.
II. Some jungles are walls.
III. Some houses are benches.
IV. Some roads are houses.

a) Only I and II follow
b) Only I and III follow
c) Only III and IV follow
d) Only II, III and IV follow
e) None of these

Monday, July 11, 2016

Bank Preparation 193

42. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter
only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

43. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written in that
code?
a) RMNBSFEJ b) BNMRSFEJ c) RMNBJEFS d) TOPDQDCH e) None of these

44. In a certain code language ‘how many goals scored’ is written as ‘5 3 9 7’; ‘many more
matches’ is written as ‘9 8 2’ and ‘he scored five’ is written as ‘1 6 3’. How is ‘goals’ written
in that code language?
a) 5 b) 7 c) 5 or 7 d) Data inadequate e) None of these

45. Pratap correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before 23rd of April but after 19th of
April, whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is not on or after
22nd of April. On which day in April is definitely their mother’s birthday?
a) 20th b) 21st c) 20th or 21st d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

Sunday, July 10, 2016

Bank Preparation 192

39. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

40. If ‘÷ means’ ‘+’, ‘⎯’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘+’ means ‘⎯’, then
15 ⎯8 × 6 ÷ 12 + 4 = ?
a) 20 b) 28 c) 8-4/7 d) 2-2/3 e) None of these

41. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 m he took a right turn and walked 30
m. He then took a right turn and walked 100 m. He again took a right turn and walked 30 m
and stopped. How far and in which direction was he from the starting point?
a) 50 m South
b) 150 m North
c) 180 m East
d) 50 m North
e) None of these

Saturday, July 9, 2016

Bank Preparation 191

36. Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even
digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in
ascending order, which of the following will be the 3rd digit from the left end after the
rearrangement?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 e) None of these

37. Town D is towards East of town F. Town B is towards North of town D. Town H is towards
South of town B. Towards which directions is town H from town F?
a) East b) South-East c) North-East d) Data inadequate e) None of these

38. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is
lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest?
a) B b) E c) C d) Data inadequate e) None of these

Friday, July 8, 2016

Bank Preparation 190

29. The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than
zero?
a) 0 b) 1 c) 10 d) 19 e) None of these

30. The greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the length 7m, 3m, 85cm,
12m, 95 cm is
a) 15 cm b) 25 cm c) 35 cm d) 42 cm e) None of these

32. Simran started a software business by investing Rs.50,000. After six months, Nanda joined
her with a capital of Rs.80,000. After 3 years, they earned a profit of Rs.24,500. What was
Simran's share in the profit?
a) Rs.9423 b) Rs.10,250 c) Rs.10,500 d) Rs.14,000 e) None of these

33. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be
formed?
a) 210 b) 1050 c) 25200 d) 21400 e) None of these

34. What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice?
a) 1/6 b) 1/8 c) 1/9 d) 1/12 e) None of these

35. My brother is 3 years elder to me. My father was 28 years of age when my sister was born
while my mother was 26 years of age when I was born. If my sister was 4 years of age when
my brother was born, then, what was the age of my father and mother respectively when my
brother was born?
a) 32 yrs., 23 yrs. b) 32 yrs., 29 yrs. c) 35 yrs., 29 yrs. d) 35 yrs., 33 yrs. e) None of these

Thursday, July 7, 2016

Bank Preparation 189

23. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day?
a) 22 b) 24 c) 44 d) 48 e) None of these

24. Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the ratio 8 : 5 and 5 : 2 respectively.
The ratio in which these two mixtures be mixed to get a new mixture containing 69 3/4% milk
is :
a) 2 : 7 b) 3 : 5 c) 5 : 2 d) 5 : 7 e) None of these

25. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are
opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely ?
a) 3 hrs 15 min b) 3 hrs 45 min c) 4 hrs d) 4 hrs 15 mins e) None of these

26. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs.450 to yield Rs.81 as interest at 4.5% per
annum of simple interest?
a) 3.5 years b) 4 years c) 4.5 years d) 5 years e) None of these

27. If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is the same as :
a) 4% of a b) 5% of a c) 20% of a  d) Data inadequate e) None of these

Wednesday, July 6, 2016

Bank Preparation 188


12. Which one of the following numbers has rational square root?
a) 0.4 b) 0.09 c) 0.9 d) 0.025 e) None of these

13. The distance between two cities A and B is 330 Km. A train starts from A at 8 a.m. and travel
towards B at 60 km/hr. Another train starts from B at 9a.m and travels towards A at 75
Km/hr. At what time do they meet?
a) 10 a.m b) 10:30a.m c) 11a.m d) 11:30a.m e) None of these

14. 10 women can complete a work in 7 days and 10 children take 14 days to complete the work.
How many days will 5 women and 10 children take to complete the work?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) Data inadequate e) None of these

15. BH is perpendicular to AC. Find x the length of BC.
a) 12.3 b) 2.3 c) 3.2 d) 13.2 e) None of these

16. Find the lengths of the other two sides of a right triangle if the length of the hypotenuse is 8
inches and one of the angles is 30°.
a) 4, 4√3 inches b) 5, 6 inches c) 2, 4√2 d) 3, 4√2 inches e) None of these

17. A man takes 3 hours 45 minutes to row a boat 15 km downstream of a river and 2 hours 30
minutes to cover a distance of 5 km upstream. Find the speed of the river current in km/hr.
a) 1 km/hr b) 2 km/hr c) 3 km/hr d) 4 km/hr e) None of these

Tuesday, July 5, 2016

Bank Preparation 187

5. A child has three different kinds of chocolates costing Rs.2, Rs.5 and Rs.10. He spends total
Rs.120 on the chocolates. What is the minimum possible number of chocolates, he can buy, if
there must be atleast one chocolate of each kind?
a) 22 b) 19 c) 17 d) 15 e) None of these

6. A, B, C rent a pasture. A puts 10 oxen for 7 months, B puts 12 oxen for 5 months and C puts
15 oxen for 3 months for grazing. If the rent of the pasture is Rs. 175, how much must C pay
as his share of rent?
a) Rs.45 b) Rs.50 c) Rs.55 d) Rs.60 e) None of these

8. A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the
probability that the ball drawn is white?
a) 3/4 b) 4/7 c) 1/8 d) 3/7 e) None of these

9. The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 6 : 7. If Q is 4 years old than P, what will be
the ratio of the ages of P and Q after 4 years?
a) 3 : 4 b) 3 : 5 c) 4 : 3 d) 7 : 8 e) None of these

10. I gain 70 paise on Rs.70. My gain percent is
a) 0.1% b) 1% c) 7% d) 10% e) None of these

Monday, July 4, 2016

Bank Preparation 186

1. A sphere of 30 cm radius is dropped into a cylindrical vessel of 80 cm diameter, which is
partly filled wikth water, then its level rises by x cm. Find x:
a) 27.5 cm b) 22.5 cm c) 18.5 cm d) Data inadequate e) None of these

2. On dividing a number by 357, we get 39 as remainder. On dividing the same number by 17,
what will be the remainder?
a) 0 b) 3 c) 5 d) 11 e) None of these

3. After replacing an old member by a new member, it was found that the average age of five
members of a club is the same as it was 3 years ago. What is the difference between the ages
of the replaced and the new member?
a) 2 years b) 4 years c) 8 years d) 15 years e) None of these

4. The LCM of two numbers is 495 and their HCF is 5. If the sum of the numbers is 10, then
their difference is
a) 10 b) 46 c) 70 d) 90 e) None of these

Sunday, July 3, 2016

Bank Preparation 185

81. A certain sum amounts to Rs.1452 in two years and to Rs.1597.20 in three years at compound
interest, then rate percent is
a) 10 b) 11 c) 13 d) 9 e) None of these

82. Nair borrowed a sum of Rs.100 from Kapoor at the simple rate of 5% p.a. for 3 years. He then
added some more money to the borrowed sum and lent it to Dipak for the same time at 8%
p.a. If Nair gains Rs.173 by way of interest on the total lent out money, then find the amount
lent out.
a) Rs.300 b) Rs.550 c) Rs.261 d) Rs.1400 e) None of these

83. A car starts running with the initial speed of 40 km/h, with its speed increasing every hour by
5 km/h. How many hours will it take to cover a distance of 385 km?
a) 9 h b) 9-1/2 h c) 8-1/2 h d) 7 h e) None of these

84. A train 100 metre long meets a man going in opposite direction at 5 km/h and passes him in
7-1/5 seconds. The speed of the train is
a) 40 km/h b) 45 km/h c) 36 km/h d) 52 km/h e) None of these

85. A person can swim in still water at 4 km/h. If the speed of water is 2 km/h, how many hours
will the man take to swim back against the current for 6 km.
a) 3 b) 4 c) 4-1/2 d) Insufficient data e) None of these

Saturday, July 2, 2016

Bank Preparation 184

76. A mixture of an herbal liquid and a base oil contains 45% herbal liquid by weight. 25gm of
base oil is added to such 200 gm of mixture. What % of herbal liquid by weight is there in the
new mixture?
a) 25 b) 60 c) 80 d) 40 e) None of these

77. In a test consisting 75 questions carrying one mark each Anil answered 75% of the first 40
questions correctly. What approximate percent of the other 35 questions does he need to
answer correctly to score 80% on the entire test.
a) 90 b) 86 c) 70 d) 65 e) None of these

78. 26 men can complete a piece of work in 17 days. How many more men must be hired to
complete the work in 13 days?
a) 34 b) 8 c) 18 d) 6 e) None of these

79. A cistern is filled in 9 hours and it takes 10 hours when there is a leak in its bottom. If the
cistern is full, in what time shall the leak empty it?
a) 90 h b) 94 h c) 92 h d) 91 h e) None of these

80. If Rs.12000 is divided into two parts such that the simple interest on the first part for 3 years
at 12% p.a. is equal to the simple interest on the second part for 4-1/2 years at 16% p.a., the
greater part is
a) Rs.6000 b) Rs.8000 c) Rs.7500 d) Rs.9000 e) None of these

Friday, July 1, 2016

Bank Preparation 183

69. If a son is younger than his father by 20 years and the father was 40 years old 5 years ago.
What will be total age of the father and son after 5 years?
a) 70 b) 90 c) 85 d) 80 e) None of these

70. The denominator of a fraction is 3 more than its numerator. If the numerator is increased by 7
and the denominator is decreased by 2, we obtain 2. The sum of numerator and denominator
of the fraction is
a) 7 b) 11 c) 13 d) 17 e) None of these

71. Pradeep invested 20% more than Mohit. Mohit invested 10% less than Raghu. If the total sum
of their investment is Rs.17880. How much amount did Raghu invest?
a) Rs.6000 b) Rs.8000 c) Rs.7000 d) Rs.5000 e) None of these

72. An article when sold for Rs.200 fetches 25% profit. What would be the percentage profit/loss
if 6 such articles are sold for Rs.1056?
a) 10% loss b) 10% profit c) 5% loss d) 5% profit e) None of these

73. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 66. What is the product of B
and E?
a) 4352 b) 4340 c) 4480 d) 4224 e) None of these

74. Pradip distributes the money among his two sons, one daughter and wife in such a way that
each son gets double the amount of the daughter and the wife gets double the amount of each
son. If each son gets Rs.4500 what was the total amount distributed?
a) Rs.15750 b) Rs.15500 c) Rs.22500 d) Rs.20250 e) None of these

75. A sum of money is to be divided among A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 3 : 7. If the total share of
A and B together is Rs.1500 less than C, what is A’s share in it?
a) Rs.1000 b) Rs.1500 c) Rs.2000 d) Data sufficient e) None of these