Thursday, June 30, 2016

Bank Preparation 182

Directions (Q. 63-65) Following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below.
519 378 436 624 893

63. If the positions of the 1st and the 3rd digits within each number are interchanged, which of the
following will be 2nd smallest number?
a) 519 b) 378 c) 436 d) 624 e) 893

64. If ‘1’ is subtracted from 1st digit in each number and ‘1’ is added to 2nd digit in each number,
which will be 3rd digit of 2nd highest number?
a) 9 b) 8 c) 6 d) 4 e) 3

65. If the position of 1st and 2nd digits within each number are interchanged, which of the
following will be the highest number?
a) 519 b) 378 c) 436 d) 624 e) 893

Wednesday, June 29, 2016

Bank Preparation 181

Directions (Q. 53-62) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Following are the conditions for granting agricultural loan of Rs.1 Lakh to the farmers by a
Gramin Bank.
The farmer must
(i) Have at least three acres of land
(ii) Not be more than 55 years old as on 1st November, 2008
(iii) Be able to provide collateral security of at least Rs.50000
(iv) Not be having any other outstanding loan from the bank
(v) Repay the loan in two years time

In the case of a farmers who satisfies all other criteria except
(a) At (iii) above but can give collateral security of at least Rs.25000, the case is to be referred to
the GM of the bank.
(b) At (iv) above but the balance outstanding loan is less than Rs.40000, the case is to be referred
to the Chairman of the bank.

In each question below is given the details of one farmer. You have to take one of the following
courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given
above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All
these cases are given to you as on 01st November, 2008.
Give answer
(a) If the loan is to be granted to the farmer
(b) If the loan is not to be granted to the farmer
(c) If the data provided are inadequate to take a decision
(d) If the case is referred to GM
(e) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman

53. SauravBehera was born on 12th July, 1962. He will repay the loan in 24 equated monthly
installments. He has provided collateral security of Rs.20000. He does not have any
outstanding loan from the bank. He owns four acre of land.

54. Jagat Das owns six acre of land. He was born on 5th December, 1960. He has an outstanding
loan from the bank of Rs.35000. He has provided collateral security of Rs.50000. He will
repay the loan in two years time.

55. Sudesh Gaur has provided collateral security of Rs.30000. He owns six acre of land. He will
repay the loan in two year time. He does not have any outstanding loan from the bank. He
was born on 28th February, 1961.

56. Mohd. Ghous owns three acre of land. He was born on 20th October, 1953. He does not have
any outstanding loan from the bank. He will repay the loan in 2 years time. He has provided
collateral security of 80000.

57. Nimesh Patel has an outstanding loan from the bank to the extent of Rs.35000. He will repay
the loan on two years time. He owns five acre of land. He has provided documents of
collateral security of Rs.55000. He was born on 08th May, 1958.

58. SushilGhatgeowns three acre of land and he does not have any outstanding loan from the
bank. He will repay the loan in 24 equated monthly installments. He has provided collateral
security of Rs.60000.

59. Mohan Dev was born on 02nd April, 1955. He owns four acre of land. He does not have any
outstanding loan from the bank. He will repay the loan within 2 years. He has provided
documents of collateral security of Rs.70000.

60. Francis D’Costa owns four acre of land. He was born on 15th July, 1959. He can repay the
loan in 2 years time. He has an outstanding loan from the bank to the extent of Rs.35000. He
has provided collateral security of Rs.65000.

61. Sukhdev Singh was born on 12th October, 1955. He will repay the loan in 24 equated monthly
installments. He has provided collateral security of Rs.70000. He own seven acre of land.

62. Neeraj Kumar owns five acre of land. He will repay the loan in 2 years time. He does not
have any outstanding loan from the bank. He has provided collateral security of Rs.30000. He
was born on 19th December, 1958.

Tuesday, June 28, 2016

Bank Preparation 180

Directions (Q. 21-25) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each statement should
replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is
correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.

21. The corruption charges were a huge blow to his reputation and his business suffered to a
great extent.
a) his business suffers to
b) his business suffered on
c) his business suffering to
d) his business suffers on
e) No correction required

22. Airline companies pay nearly 25 billion dollars for their right of fly over the countries other
than their parent country.
a) their right to fly
b) their right in flying
c) their right to flying
d) there right of flight
e) No correction required

23. When he fell down the ditch, he shouted with all his might so that to catch someone’s
attention.
a) such that to catch
b) so as to catch
c) so that to catching
d) so then to catch
e) No correction required

24. The disparity between the earnings of the poor and the rich has widen in the last few decades.
a) have widen in
b) has widened on
c) have widened in
d) has widened in
e) No correction required

25. Instead of teaching abstracted concepts, the new and improved textbooks tell stories of real
people so that the children can identify with the characters.
a) Inspite of teaching abstracted
b) Instead of taught abstract
c) Instead of teaching abstract
d) Inspite of taught abstract
e) No correction required

Monday, June 27, 2016

Bank Preparation 179

Directions (Q.26-30) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) to make a
meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow.
(A) The blame for lacking creativity is, however, put on the present generation by the modern
educationists.
(B) The concept of home work began so that the pupils could revise that was being taught in the
class.
(C) By doing so, most of the schools took away the leisure time of the children.
(D) Instead, these educationists should suggest lowering of burden of homework to the
commission for educational reforms.
(E) The purpose of this concept was, however, defeated when the schools started overburdening
students with so called homework.
(F) Lack of such leisure time does not allow the children to develop creative pursuits.

26. Which of the following sentence should be 3rd after rearrangement?
a) A b) E c) D d) F e) C

27. Which of the following sentence should be 1st after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

28. Which of the following sentence should be 2nd after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) D d) E e) F

29. Which of the following sentence should be 6th (Last) after rearrangement?
a) B b) C c) D d) E e) F

30. Which of the following sentence should be 5th after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) E e) F

Sunday, June 26, 2016

Bank Preparation 178

31. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from 1st, 3rd, 6th and 8th letters of the word
‘EXAMINATION’, using each letter only once, 1st letter of that word is your answer. If more
than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘X’ and if no such word can be formed your
answer is ‘Y’.
a) A b) T c) N d) X e) Y

32. If in a certain code language ‘CLUB’ is written as ‘XOFY’, ‘NOT’ is written as ‘MLG’, then
how will ‘PUNCTUAL’ be written in that code language?
a) KFMGXZFO b) KFMXGZFO c) KFMXGFZO d) KFMXGFOZ e) None of these

33. Mukesh is taller than Suresh but shorter than Rakesh. Rakesh is taller than Harish but shorter
than Amar. Who among them is the shortest?
a) Mukesh b) Suresh c) Harish d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

Saturday, June 25, 2016

Bank Preparation 177

Directions (Q.34-39) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The
resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the
questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from
left to the right.
Rules
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number, they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number
is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by
the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the second one is to be subtracted from
the first number.

34. 15 8 21 P 3 27
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant o the second row?
a) 58 b) 76 c) 27 d) 82 e) None of these

35. 12 64 17 20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row?
a) 69 b) 85 c) 101 d) 121 e) None of these

36. 85 17 35 16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row?
a) 175 b) – 5 c) 75 d) 210 e) None of these

37. 24 15 3 D 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row?
a) 37 b) 8 c) 22 d) 29 e) None of these

38. 28 49 15 h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row?
a) 13 b) 15 c) 19 d) 27 e) None of these

39. 36 15 3 12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row?
a) 15/17 b) 32 c) 12/17 d) 36 e) None of these

Friday, June 24, 2016

Bank Preparation 176

Directions (Q. 40-44) Read the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.
I. There are six members in a family.
II. The members are A, B, C, D, E and F.
III. D is the daughter of F who is the mother of E.
IV. E is the daughter of A.
V. A is the son of C.
VI. The family consists of one couple who has their parents and their children.

40. What relationship do D and E bear to each other?
a) Mother and son
b) Sister and brother
c) Sisters
d) Grandmother and granddaughter

41. Who are the male members in the family?
a) A, B and D b) C and F c) A and C d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

42. Which of the following pairs are the parents of the children?
a) BF b) CF c) BC d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

43. How many female members are there in the family?
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

44. Which of the following pairs are the parents of the couple?
a) CF b) AF c) BC d) AB e) None of these

Thursday, June 23, 2016

Bank Preparation 175

45. The priest told the devotees, ‘the bell is rung at regular intervals of 45 min. The last bell was
rung 5 min. ago. The next bell is due to be rung at 7:45 am. At what time did the priest give
the information to be devotees?
a) 6:55 am b) 7:00 am c) 7:05 am d) 7:40 am e) None of these

46. If day before yesterday was Saturday, then what day of the week will it be on day after
tomorrow?
a) Friday b) Thursday c) Wednesday d) Tuesday e) None of these

47. A man goes towards East 5 km, then he takes a turn to South-West and goes 5 km. He again
takes a turn towards North-West and goes 5 km with respect to the point from where he
started, where is he now?
a) At the starting point
b) In the west
c) In the East
d) In the North East
e) None of these

Wednesday, June 22, 2016

Bank Preparation 174

Directions (Q. 48-52) Study the information carefully and answer the questions.
S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circle area, with equal distance amongst each
other but not necessarily in the same order.
Only two people face the centre and the rest face outside (i.e. in a direction opposite to the
centre)
Y sits 2nd to left of W. S sits 2nd to left of Y. Only one person sits between S and Z. T sits to
immediate right of S. T is not an immediate neighbor of Y. V is not an immediate neighbor of Y.
Both the immediate neighbours of X face the centre.

48. Who is sitting to immediate right of Z?
a) Y b) V c) T d) X e) W

49. Which of the following is true regarding U as per the given sitting arrangement?
a) X sits 2nd to left of U
b) Only three people sit between U and Y
c) Z is one of the immediate neighbours of U
d) U faces the centre
e) S sits to immediate left of U

50. What is T’s position with respect of Y?
a) 2nd to the right
b) 2nd to the left
c) 5th to the left
d) 4th to the right
e) 3rd to the left

51. Which of the following groups represents the immediate neighbours of X?
a) WY b) VW c) TZ d) VZ e) SU

52. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given sitting arrangement
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Z b) T c) Y d) V e) X

Tuesday, June 21, 2016

Bank Preparation 173

Directions (Q. 16-20) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error if any will be in one part of the sentence the number of that part will be the answer. If there
is no error, mark (5) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

16. I may go to the (1) / swimming class tomorrow (2) / if I have recovered (3) / from the cold.
(4) / No error (5)

17. The Prime Minister announced (1) / that the taxes will be (2) / increasing from the (3) /
beginning of the next year. (4) No error (5)

18. He is the most (1) / intelligent and also (2) / the very talented (3) / student of the college. (4)
No error (5)

19. She immediately quit (1) / the job in which (2) / neither the skill nor (3) / knowledge were
required. (4) No error (5)

20. The meteorological department (1) / predicted that the (2) / rains and thunderstorm may (3) /
continue throughout today. (4) No error (5)

Monday, June 20, 2016

Bank Preparation 172

Directions (Q. 1-15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
The education sector in India is in ferment, hit by a storm long waiting to happen. The
butterfly that flapped its wings was the much-reiterated statement in a much publicized report that
hardly a fourth of graduating engineers and an even smaller percentage of other graduates, was of
employable quality for IT-BPO jobs. This triggered a cyclone when similar views were echoed by
other sectors which led to widespread debate. Increased industry-academia interaction, “finishing
schools” and other efforts were initiated as immediate measures to bridge skill deficits. These,
however, did not work as some felt that these are but band-aid solutions: instead, radical systemic
reform is necessary.

Yet there will be serious challenges to overdue reforms in the education system. In India as in
many countries education is treated as a holy cow: sadly the administrative system that oversees it has also been deceived. Today, unfortunately, there is no protest against selling drinking water or paying to be cured of illness, or for having to buy food when one is poor and starving: nor is there an outcry that in all these cases there are commercial companies operating on a profit-making basis. Why, then is there an instinctively adverse reaction to the formal entry of ‘for profit’ institutes in the realm of education? Is potable water, health or food, less basic a need, less important a right, than higher education?

While there are strong arguments for free or subsidized higher education, we are not writing
on a blank page. Some individuals and businessmen had entered this sector long back and found
devious ways of making money, thought the law stipulates that educational institutes must be ‘notfor-
profit’ trusts or societies. Yet, there is opposition to the entry of ‘for-profit’ corporates, which
would be more transparent and accountable. As a result, desperately needed investment in
promoting the wider reach of quality education has been stagnated at a time when financial figures
indicate that the allocation of funds for the purpose is but a fourth of the need.
Well-run corporate organizations, within an appropriate regulatory framework, would be far
better than the so-called trusts which barring some noteworthy exceptions are a blot on education.
However, it is not necessarily a question of choosing one over the other: different organizational
forms can coexist, as they do in the health sector. A regulatory framework which creates competition,
in tandem with a rating system, would automatically ensure the quality and relevance of education.
As in sectors like telecom and packaged goods, organizations will quickly expand into the hinterland to tap the large unmet demand. Easy loan/scholarship arrangements would ensure affordability and
access.

The only real structural reform in higher education was the creation of the institutes for
technology and management. They were also given autonomy and freedom beyond that of the
universities. However, in the last few years, determined efforts have been underway to curb their
autonomy. These institutes, however, need freedom to decide on recruitment, salaries and admissions,
so as to compete globally.

However, such institutes will be few. Therefore, we need a regulatory framework that will
enable and encourage states and the centre, genuine philanthropists and also corporates to set up
quality educational institutions. The regulatory system needs only to ensure transparency,
accountability, competition and widely available independent assessments or ratings. It is time for
radical thinking, bold experimentationand new structures; it is time for the government to bite the
bullet.

1. Why, according to the author, did the initiatives such as increased industry-academia and
finishing schools did not help to bridge the skill deficit?
A. These steps were only superficial remedies and the problem could be answered only by
reforming the entire education system.
B. These initiatives operated on a profit making basis rather than aiming at any serious systemic
reforms.
C. The allocation of funds to such initiatives was only one fourth of the need.

a) Only A b) Only B c) Only B and C d) Only A and B e) None of these

2. Which of the following suggestions have been made by the author to improve the state of
education in India?
A. Allowing the corporate organizations to enter the education sector.
B. Easy availability of loans and scholarships for making education more affordable.
C. A rating system for all the organizations to ensure quality.

a) Only A b) Only A and B c) Only A and C d) All A, B and C e) None of these

3. According to the author, what ‘triggered a cyclone’ which saw similar views on the state of
education being echoed across other sectors as well?
a) The campaign for allowing corporates in the education sector on a ‘for profit’ basis
b) The support for the increase in the industry academia interaction
c) The report mentioning that only a small percentage of graduates were employable in
software industry
d) The report supporting the idea of making the education completely ‘for profit’ in order to
improve upon the standards
e) None of these

4. Which argument does the author put forward when he compares the education sector with
sectors catering to health and potable water etc.?
a) Education should also be provided free of cost to all as health services and water
b) Taking an example from these sectors, there should be a protest against the
commercialization of education as well
c) Allowing corporate entry in education would result in rampant corruption as in the sectors
of health and potable water etc.
d) As in these sectors, commercial organizations should also be allowed to enter the education
sector
e) None of these

5. What does the author mean by the phrase ‘we are not writing on a blank page’ in context of
the passage?
a) Corporates would never enter education if they are forced to function on a non profit
making basis
b) The commercialization of education has already started in India
c) Education has been reduced to a profit making sector by some corporate organizations
d) Government will not allow corporates to enter education as India can’t afford to have
costly education
e) None of these

6. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?
a) To suggest the ways to improve quality of education in India
b) To highlight the corruption present in the education sector
c) To compare the education sector with other sectors
d) To suggest some temporary solutions to the problems in education
e) None of these

7. According to the author, which of the following was the only step taken in order to reform the
higher education?
a) Allowing organizations to enter the education sector on a ‘for profit’ basis
b) Creation of autonomous institutes for management and technology which were not under
university control
c) Setting up the regulatory framework for all the existing universities
d) Making the availability of educational loans and scholarships easier
e) None of these

8. Which suggestion does the author make in order to make the institutes of higher learning for
technology and management capable of competing globally?
a) To limit their autonomy to acceptable limit and give partial controls to the government
b) To allow corporate organizations to take them over in order to provide more funds
c) To increase the allocation of funds to such institutes
d) All of the above
e) None of these

9. Which of the following is not true in context of the given passage?
a) According to the law, education institutes should not be run for profit
b) There has been no protest against the selling of drinking water and paying for the health
services
c) Only either corporate organizations or government controlled organizations can exist in the
education sector
d) The introduction of ‘for profit’ corporates in the education sector has been facing a lot of
criticism
e) All are true

Directions (Q. 10-12) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
10. Devious
a) Dishonest b) Different c) Severe d) Various e) Trivial

11. Measures
a) Amount b) Quantity c) Steps d) Capacity e) Length

12. Bridge
a) Connect b) Eliminate c) Unite d) Link e) Fuse

Directions (Q.13-15) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
13. Promoting
a) Demoting b) Delaying c) Postponing d) Broadening e) Hampering

14. Noteworthy
a) Unnoticed b) Insignificant c) Indefinite d) Remarkable e) Obsolete

15. Transparent
a) Reputed b) Opaque c) Defective d) Corrupt e) Thick

Sunday, June 19, 2016

Bank Preparation 171

Directions (Q. 96-100): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
A. Besides, they get a lot of exposure to novel things through media.
B. Therefore, their mental development did not show any extraordinary signs.
C. Children of the present generation appear to be smarter than their earlier counterparts.
D. Thus, the environment of present days has brought out these changes.
E. This is probably because there are lots of opportunities for their indirect learning.
F. Children of yester years did not have these facilities.
96. Which of the following will be the Third sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
97. Which of the following will be the First sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
98. Which of the following will be the Sixth sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
99. Which of the following will be the Second sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) E
100. Which of the following will be the Fifth sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D

Saturday, June 18, 2016

Bank Preparation 170

Directions (Q. 91-95) Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be wrongly spelt.
Find out the word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words are correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.
91. Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be wrongly spelt. Find out the
word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words are correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.
a) Adventure b) Demonstration c) Environment
d) Innosent e) All Correct
92. Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be wrongly spelt. Find out the
word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words are correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.
a) Limitasion b) Dependable c) Miniature
d) Qualitative e) All Correct
93. Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be wrongly spelt. Find out the
word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words are correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.
a) Lucrative b) Ancestral c) Performanse
d) Incidentally e) All Correct
94. Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be wrongly spelt. Find out the
word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words are correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.
a) Futility b) Separasion c) Embarrassment
d) Positively e) All Correct
95. Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be wrongly spelt. Find out the
word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words are correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.
a) Tournament b) Enhancement c) Amazingly
d) Continuation e) All Correct

Friday, June 17, 2016

Bank Preparation 169

Directions (Q. 86-90) Read this sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error
in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your
answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation if
any).

86. Mangal Pandey was well known (a) / because he was involved (b) / in the initial stages (c) /
of the Indian rebellion. (d) / No error (e)

87. Most of the Indian populatoins still lives (a) / in its villages and thus the contribution of (b) /
agriculture to Indian economy (c) / becomes very important. (d) / No error (e)

88. Catherine’s grandfather always (a) / lost his balance while walking (b) / and would be found
fallen (c) / on the road. (d) / No error (e)

89. Her doctor was (a) / annoyed because she (b) / ignore her health (c) / even after being
hospitalised twice. (d) No error (e)

90. Raghav was worry (a) / about telling his parents (b) / that he wanted to move out (c) / and live
independently. / (d) No error (e)

Thursday, June 16, 2016

Bank Preparation 168

Directions (Q. 81-85): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
A. The reasons for their happiness was that they had come to the Vithal temple of Pandharpur to see
their beloved Lord.
B. There were rich, poor men, women, children, blind, handicapped among them.
C. They were all in a very happy state of mind, as was apparent from their glowing faces.
D. They would worship and seek the Divine blessings while in Pandharpur.
E. It was an auspicious day and many people had assembled in the temple.
F. Though different there was one commonality among.

81. Which of the following should be the Fourth statement after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D

82. Which of the following should be the Fifth statement after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D

83. Which of the following should be the Sixth statement after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D

84. Which of the following should be the First statement after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) E

85. Which of the following should be the Second statement after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D

Wednesday, June 15, 2016

Bank Preparation 167

Directions (Q. 56-60) In the following questions, the symbols @, $, *, # and ! are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P ! Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
four conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are dfinitely true and give your answer
accordingly

56. Statements: N ! B, B $ W, W # H, H * M
Conclusions: I. M @ W
II. H @ N
III. W ! N
IV. W # N
a) Only I is true
b) Only III is true
c) Only IV is true
d) Only either III or IV is true
e) Only either III or IV and I are true

57. Statements: R * D, D $ J, J # M, M @ K
Conclusions: I. K # J
II. D @ M
III. R # M
IV. D @ K
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only IV is true

58. Statements: H @ T, T # F, F ! E, E * V
Conclusions: I. V $ F
II. E @ T
III. H @ V
IV. T # V
a) Only I, II and III are true
b) Only I, II and IV are true
c) Only II, III and IV are true
d) Only I, III and IV are true
e) All I, II, III and IV are true

59. Statements: D # R, R * K, K @ F, F $ J
Conclusions: I. J # R
II. J # K
III. R # F
IV. K @ D
a) Only I, II and III are true
b) Only II, III and IV are true
c) Only I, III and IV are true
d) All I, II, III and IV are true
e) None of these

60. Statements: M $ K, K @ N, N * R, R # W
Conclusions: I. W @ K
II. M $ R
III. K @ W
IV. M @ N
a) Only I and II are true
b) Only I, II and III are true
c) Only III and IV are true
d) Only II, III and IV are true
e) None of these

Tuesday, June 14, 2016

Bank Preparation 166

Directions (Q. 51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight employees of an organization working in three
departments viz. Personnel, Administration and Marketing with not more than three of them in any
department. Each of them has a different choice of sports from Football, Cricket, Volleyball,
Badminton, Lawn Tennis, Basketball, Hockey and Table Tennis not necessarily in the same order.
D works in Administration and does not like either Football or Cricket. F works in Personnel
with only A who likes Table Tennis. E and H do not work in the same department as D. C likes
Hockey and does not work in Marketing. G does not work in Administration and does not like either
Cricket or Badminton. One of those who work in Administration likes Football. The one who likes
Volleyball works in Personnel. None of those who work in Administration likes either Badminton or
Lawn Tennis. H does not like Cricket.

51. Which of the following groups of employees work in Administration department?
a) EGH b) AF c) BCD
d) BGD e) Data inadequate

52. In which department does E work?
a) Personnel b) Marketing c) Administration
d) Data inadequate e) None of these

53. What is E’s favourite sport?
a) Cricket b) Badminton c) Basketball
d) Lawn Tennis e) None of these

54. Which of the following combinations of employees-department-favourite sport is correct?
a) E-Administration-Cricket
b) F-Personnel-Lawn Tennis
c) H-Marketing-Lawn Tennis
d) B-Administration-Table Tennis
e) None of these

55. What is G’s favourite sport?
a) Cricket b) Badminton c) Basketball
d) Lawn Tennis e) None of these

Monday, June 13, 2016

Bank Preparation 165

Directions (Q. 66-70) In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions (A), (B) and (C). An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statements and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

66. Statement: The Government has decided to auction construction of highways to private
entities in several blocks across the country on build-operate-transfer basis.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
(A) An adequate number of private entities may not respond to the Government’s auction
notification.
(B) Many private entities in the country are capable of constructing highways within reasonable
time.
(C) The Government’s proposal of build-operate-transfer may financially benefit the private
entities.
a) Only (A) and (B) are implicit
b) Only (B) and (C) are implicit
c) Only (B) is implicit
d) Only (A) and (C) are implicit
e) None of these

67. Statement: Government has urged all the citizens to use electronic media for carrying out
their daily activities, whenever possible, instead of using paper as the manufacture of paper
requires the cutting down of a large number of trees causing severe damage to the ecosystem.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
(A) Most people may be capable of using electronic media to carry out various routines.
(B) Most people may have access to electronic media for carrying out their daily routine
activities.
(C) People at large may reject the Government’s appeal and continue using paper as before.
a) Only (A) is implicit
b) Only (B) is implicit
c) Only (A) and (B) are implicit
d) Only (C) is implicit
e) None of these

68. Statement: The apex body controlling universities in the country has decided to revise the
syllabus of all the technical courses to make them focused towards the present needs of the
industry thereby making the technical graduates more employable than they are at present.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
(A) Technical colleges affiliated to different universities may not welcome the apex body’s
decision and may continue with the same syllabus as at present.
(B) The industry may welcome the decision of the apex body and scale up their hiring from these
colleges.
(C) The Government may not allow the apex body to implement its decision in all the colleges as
it may lead to chaos.
a) None is implicit
b) Only (A) is implicit
c) Only (B) is implicit
d) Only (C) is implicit
e) Only (A) and (B) are implicit

69. Statement: Police authority cordoned off the entire locality for the entire day and stopped all
vehicular movement for the visit of a top functionary of the government in view of the threat
perception and advised all the residents in the area to limit their movement outside their
dwellings.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
(A) Police personnel may not be able to control the vehicular movement in the locality and may
seek help from the armed forces.
(B) People living in the locality may move out of their houses for the day to avoid
inconvenience.
(C) The Government functionary may request the police authority to lift the ban on movement
residents of the locality outside their dwellings.
a) None is implicit
b) Only (A) is implicit
c) Only (B) is implicit
d) Only (C) is implicit
e) None of these

70. Statement: The airlines have requested all their bonafide passengers to check the status of
flight operations before leaving their homes as heavy fog is causing immense problems to
normal flight operations.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
(A) The majority of the air passengers may check the flight status before starting their journey to
the airport.
(B) The Government may take serious objection to the notice issued by the airline company.
(C) Majority of the passengers may cancel their tickets and postpone their journey till the
situation becomes normal.
a) None is implicit
b) Only (A) is implicit
c) Only (B) is implicit
d) Only (C) is implicit
e) None of these

Sunday, June 12, 2016

Bank Preparation 164

Directions (Q. 61-65) In making decision about important question, it is desirable to be able to
distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the
question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered (A), (B) and (C). You have to decide
which is the arguments is a ‘strong’ arguments and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

61. Statement Should there be complete ban on setting up of thermal power plants in India?
Arguments:
(A) Yes, this is the only way to arrest further addition to environmental pollution.
(B) No, there is a huge shortage of electricity in most parts of the country and hence generation
of electricity needs to be augmented.
(C) No, many developed countries continue to set up thermal power plants in their countries.
a) None is strong
b) Only (A) is strong
c) Only (B) is strong
d) Only (C) is strong
e) Only either (A) or (B) is strong

62. Statements: Should road repair work in big cities be carried out only late at night?
Arguments:
(A) No, this way the work will never get completed.
(B) No, there will be unncessary use of electricity.
(C) Yes, the commuters will face lot of problems due to repair work during the day.
a) None is strong
b) Only (A) is strong
c) Only (C) is strong
d) Only (B) and (C) are strong
e) Only (A) and (B) are strong

63. Statements: Should all the deemed universities be derecognized and attached to any of the
central of state universities in India?
Arguments:
(A) Yes many of these deemed universities do not conform to the required standards of a fullfledged
university and hence the level of education is compromised.
(B) No, these deemed universities have been able to introduce innovative courses suitable to the
requirement of various industries as they are free from strict government controls.
(C) Yes, many such universities are basically money spinning activities and education takes a
backseat in these institutions.
a) Only (A) and (B) are strong
b) Only (B) and (C) are strong
c) Only (A) and (C) are strong
d) All (A), (B) and (C) are strong
e) None of these

64. Statement: Should there be a cap on drawing groundwater for irrigation purposes in India?
Arguments:
(A) No, irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily dependent
on groundwater in many parts of the country.
(B) Yes, water tables have gone down to alarmingly low levels in some parts of the country
where irrigation is primarily dependent on groundwater, which may lead to serious
environmental consequences.
(C) Yes, India just cannot afford to draw groundwater any furthre as the international agencies
have cautioned India against it.
a) Only (A) and (B) are strong
b) Only (B) and (C) are strong
c) Only (A) and (C) are strong
d) All (A), (B) and (C) are strong
e) None of these

65. Statements: Should there be a restriction on the construction of high rise building in big
cities in India?
Arguments:
(A) No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing
population.
(B) Yes, only the builders and developers benefit from the construction of high rise buildings.
(C) Yes, the Government should first provide adequate infrastructural facilities to existing
building before allowing the construction of new high rise buildings.
a) Only (B) is strong
b) Only (C) is strong
c) Only (A) and (C) are strong
d) Only (A) is strong
e) None of these

Saturday, June 11, 2016

Bank Preparation 163

Directions (Q. 56-60) In the following questions, the symbols !, @, ©, % and * are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smalle than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P ! Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three
conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

56. Statements: D ! T, T @ R, R © M, M % K
Conclusions: I. R @ D
II. R % D
III. K * T
IV. M ! T
a) Only either I or II is true
b) Only III and IV are true
c) Only either I or II and III are true
d) Only either I or II and IV are true
e) Only either I or II and III and IV are true

57. Statements: J @ F, F ! N, N % H, H © G
Conclusions: I. G * N
II. N © J
III. F * J
IV. J ! G
a) Only I and II are true
b) Only I, II and III are true
c) Only II, III and IV are true
d) All I, II, III and IV are true
e) None of these

58. Statements: R * K, K % D, D @ V, V ! M
Conclusions: I. R * D
II. V * R
III. D @ M
IV. M % D
a) None is true
b) Only III is true
c) Only IV is true
d) Only either III or IV is true
e) None of these

59. Statements: B © T, T * R, R % F, F @ K
Conclusions: I. B % R
II. F * T
III. R % K
IV. K & T
a) None is true
b) Only I is true
c) Only II is true
d) Only III is true
e) Only IV is true

60. Statements: F % N, N © W, W ! Y, Y – T
Conclusions: I. F % W
II. T % N
III. N % Y
IV. T % W
a) Only I and III are true
b) Only I and IV are true
c) Only II and III are true
d) Only I, II and IV are true
e) None of these

Friday, June 10, 2016

Bank Preparation 162

Directions (Q. 51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is 4th to the right of A
who is 3rd to the right of B. K is 4th to the left of B and 3rd to the right of D. C is 3rd to the right of H. E is 2nd to the left of G.

51. Who is to the immediate right of F?
a) B b) G c) E d) Data inadequate e) None of these

52. Who is 3rd to the right of K?
a) F b) E c) G d) Data inadequate e) None of these

53. What is E’s position with respect to B?
a) 2nd to the left
b) 3rd to the right
c) 4th to the right
d) 3rd to the left
e) 5th to the right

54. Who is 4th to the left of G?
a) C b) A c) D  d) K e) Data inadequate

55. In which of the following combinations is the 3rd person sitting betweenthe 1st and the 2nd
persons?
a) GFB b) BGH c) ADC d) KEC e) EGF

Thursday, June 9, 2016

Bank Preparation 161

Directions (Q. 46-50) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

46. Statements: Some trains are cars.
All cars are branches.
All branches are nets.
Some nets are dresses.
Conclusions: I. Only I and II follow
II. Only II and III follow
III. Only I and IV follow
IV. Some roads are clips.
a) Only I and II follow
b) Only II and III follow
c) Only I and IV follow
d) Only II, III and IV follow
e) None of these

47. Statements: All papers are clips.
Some clips are boards.
Some boards are lanes.
All lanes are roads.
Conclusions: I. Some roads are boards.
II. Some lanes are clips.
III. Some boards are papes.
IV. Some roads are clips.
a) Only I and II follow
b) Only I and III follow
c) Only I, II and III follow
d) Only II, III and IV follow
e) None of these

48. Statements: Some pencils are kites.
Some kites are desks.
All desks are jungles.
All jungles are mountains.
Conclusions: I. Some mountains are pencils.
II. Some jungles are pencils.
III. Some mountains are desks.
IV. Some jungles are kites.
a) Only I and III follow
b) Only I, II and III follow
c) Only III and IV follow
d) Only II, III and IV follow
e) None of these

49. Statements: All stones are hammers.
No hammer is ring.
Some rings are doors.
All doors are windows.
Conclusions: I. Some windows are stones.
II. Some windows are rings.
III. No window is stone.
IV. Some rings are stones.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only eithre I or III follows
e) Only either I or III and II follow

50. Statements: All pens are clocks.
Some clocks are tyres.
Some tyres are wheels.
Some wheels are buses.
Conclusions: I. Some buses are tyres.
II. Some wheels are clocks.
III. Some wheels are pens.
IV. Some buses are clocks.
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only IV follows

Wednesday, June 8, 2016

Bank Preparation 160

40. In a certaincode THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is SOULFUL written in that code?
a) VPTKKTE b) VPTKETK c) TPVKKTE d) TNRKMVG e) None of these

41. The positions of how many digits in the number 59164823 will remain unchanged after the
digits are rearranged in descendign order within the number?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

42. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 15 metres. He then took
a right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 15 metres. How far
is he from the starting point?
a) 95 metres b) 50 metres c) 70 metres d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

43. What should come next in the following letter series?
PQRSTABCDEPQRSABCDEPQRSABCDPQ
a) R b) T c) A d) B e) None of these

44. In a certain code language, ‘how can you go’ is written as ‘ja da ka pa’. ‘can you come here’
is written as ‘na ka sa ja’ and ‘come and go’ is written as ‘ra pa sa’. How is ‘here’ written in
that code language?
a) ja b) na c) pa d) Data inadequate e) None of these

45. What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet?
CEA IKG OQM ?
a) STW b) WUS c) SWU d) UWS e) None of these

Tuesday, June 7, 2016

Bank Preparation 159

36. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIBUNAL each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

37. In a certain code DOWN as ‘5@9#’ and NAME is written as ‘#6%3’. How is MODE written
in that code?
a) %653 b) %@63 c) %5@3 d) %@53 e) None of these

38. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LGEU using each letter
only once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

39. If ‘R’ denotes ‘⎯’, ‘Q’ denotes ‘X’, ‘W’ denotes ‘÷’ and ‘A’ denoted ‘+’, then
42 W 7 R 8 A 6 Q 4 = ?
a) ⎯22 b) ⎯168 c) 22 d) 28 e) None of these

Monday, June 6, 2016

Bank Preparation 158

30. Two dice are tossed. The probability that the total score is a prime number is:
a) 1/6 b) 5/1 c) 1/2 d) 7/9 e) None of these

31. The sum of the ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the
age of the youngest child?
a) 4 years b) 8 years c) 10 years d) 12 years e) None of these

32. A shopkeeper professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses a weight of 800 gm instead of
kilogram weight. Thus, he make a profit of
a) 20% b) 22% c) 25% d) Data inadequate e) None of these

33. The number of common terms to the two sequences 17, 21, 25 …. 417 and 16, 21, 26 …. 466
is :
a) 19 b) 20 c) 21
d) 84 e) None of these
34. √50 × √98 is equal to
a) 63.75 b) 65.95 c) 70
d) 70.25 e) None of these

Sunday, June 5, 2016

Bank Preparation 157

25. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of
one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?
a) 76Kg b) 76.5Kg c) 85Kg d) Data inadequate e) None of these

26. In Arum’s opinion, his weight is greater than 65 kg but less than 72 kg. His brother doest not
agree with Arum and he thinks that Arum’s weight is greater than 60 kg but less than 70 kg.
His mother's view is that his weight cannot be greater than 68 kg. If all are them are correct in
their estimation, what is the average of different probable weights of Arum?
a) 67 kg b) 68 kg c) 69 Kg. d) Data inadequate e) None of these

27. Product of two co-prime numbers is 117. Their LCM should be
a) 1 b) 117 c) equal to their H.C.F. d) Cannot be calculated e) None of these

28. A starts a business with Rs.3500 and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a
year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B’s contribution in the capital?
a) Rs.7500 b) Rs.8000 c) Rs.8500  d) Rs.9000 e) None of these

29. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'DETAIL' be arranged in such a way
that the vowels occupy only the odd positions?
a) 32 b) 48 c) 36 d) 60 e) None of these

Saturday, June 4, 2016

Bank Preparation 156

17. A train travels at an average of 50 miles per hour for 2x1/2 hours and then travels at a speed
of 70 miles per hour for 1x1/2 hours. How far the train did travels in the entire 4 hours?
a) 120 miles b) 150 miles c) 200 miles d) 230 miles e) None of these

18. What number should be divided by √0.25 to give the results as 25?
a) 12.5 b) 25 c) 50 d) 125 e) None of these

20. A shopkeeper give 12% additional discount on the discounted price, after giving an initial
discount of 20% on the labeled price of a radio. If the final sale price of the radio is Rs.704,
then what is its labeled price?
a) Rs.844.80 b) Rs.929.28 c) Rs.1000 d) Rs.1044.80 e) None of these

21. A person was asked to state his age in years. His reply was, “Take my age three years hence,
multiply it by 3 and then subtract three times my age three years ago and you will know how
old I am.” What was the age of the person?
a) 14 years b) 18 years c) 20 years d) 32 years e) None of these

23. In how many ways can the letters of the word 'LEADER' be arranged?
a) 72 b) 144 c) 360 d) 72 e) None of these

24. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remained in
each case.
a) 4 b) 7 c) 9 d) 13 e) None of these

Friday, June 3, 2016

Bank Preparation 155

13. A man can row upstream at 8 kmph and downstream at 13 kmph. The speed of the stream is
a) 2.5 km/hr b) 4.2 km/hr c) 5 km/hr d) 10.5 km/hr e) None of these

14. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures upto 1440 degrees, how many
sides does the polygon have?
a) 10 sides b) 8 sides c) 12 sides d) 9 sides e) None of these

15. Number of solutions of the equation tan x + sec x = 2 cos x, lying in the interval [0, 2π] is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) None of these

16. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for
Rs.3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to
C?
a) Rs.375 b) Rs.400 c) Rs.600 d) Rs.800 e) None of these

Thursday, June 2, 2016

Bank Preparation 154

Directions (Q. 8-12) The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure
incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the questions based on it.

Various Expenditures (in percentage) Incurred in Publishing a Book


Wednesday, June 1, 2016

Bank Preparation 153

1. What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have 1 or 9 in the unit’s digit?
a) 1 b) 14 c) 20 d) 21 e) None of these

2. (935421 × 625) = ?
a) 575648125 b) 584638125 c) 584649125 d) 585628125 e) None of these

3. Reena took a loan of Rs.1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If
she paid Rs.432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?
a) 3.6 b) 6 c) 18 d) Data inadequate e) None of these

4. A leak in the bottom of a tank can empty the full tank in 8 hours. An inlet pipe fills water at
ther ate of 6 litres a minute. When the tank is full, the inlet is opened and due to the leak, the
tank is empty in 12 hours. How many litres does the cistern hold?
a) 7580 b) 7960 c) 8290 d) 8640 e) None of these

5. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses costing Rs.15 and Rs.20 per kg
respectively so as to get a mixture worth Rs.16.50 kg?
a) 3 : 7 b) 5 : 7 c) 7 : 3 d) 7 : 5 e) None of these

6. At what time, in minutes, between 3 o’clock and 4 o’clock, both the needles will coincide
each other?
a) 5 b) 12 c) 13 d) 16 e) None of these

7. What was the day of the week on 28th May 2006?
a) Thursday b) Friday c) Saturday d) Sunday e) None of these