Bank Preparation 121

Directions (Q. 71-74) In each question below a statement/s is given followed by two courses of
action numbered I and II. A course of action is a practicable and feasible step or administrative
decision to be taken for follow up, improvement, or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc.
On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement
to be true, and decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Give answer (a) if only I follows
Give answer (b) if only II follows
Give answer (c) if either I or II follows
Give answer (d) if neither I nor II follows
Give answer (e) if both I and II follow

71. Statement: People see tax as a burden and thus devise ways to underpay or avoid it
altogether.
Courses of action
I. Government should educate and inform citizens about the ways in which taxes help in
development of the nation.
II. Tax rates should be increased so that the under-recovery in collection is compensated.

72. Statement: There is no motivation among today’s generation to join the armed forces
owing to frequent transfers to risky areas. Perhaps they are not aware of the good side of it.
Courses of action
I. Short term internship should be introduced at high school level to give students a
peek into the adventurous life of the forces and provide a more realistic job purview.
II. The salary levels of the defence forces should be increased with immediate effect.

73. Statement: A plethora of bodies with no single one which can be held accountable for
city’s development is the key reason behind its rather stagnant state.
Courses of action
I. Each body should be given a set of duties and there should be no duplication in such
allocation.
II. An umbrella committee should be appointed with powers to regulate actions of all
other bodies.

74. Statement: Number of hospital beds per 1000 people in India, which is a key indicator of
healthcare infrastructure, is much lower than many other nations which are thought to be
poorer than India.
Courses of action
I. The expenditure of importing costly medicines should be borne by the State.
II. Incentives should be given to encourage entry of private players into building of
healthcare infrastructure.

Bank Preparation 120

Directions (Q. 66-70) In each question below is given a statement followed by two
assumptions/inferences numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted
and an inference is something which can be directly inferred from the given facts. You have to
consider the statement and the following assumptions/inferences and decide which of those is/are
implicit in the statement.

Give answer (a) if only I is implicit
Give answer (b) if only II is implicit
Give answer (c) if either I or II is implicit
Give answer (d) if neither I nor II is implicit
Give answer (e) if both I and II are implicit

66. Statement: Do not enter-avoid the risk of getting infected with the ABC disease – written
outside the quarantine ward no.2 (meant only for ABC disease) of a hospital.
I. Disease ‘ABC’ is contagious.
II. All the patients in ward no.2 suffer from disease ABC.

67. Statement: In city Z, people prefer to buy Car X instead of Car Y as Car X has German
technology which is very advanced.
I. Cars with German technology are perceived to be better than other cars in city Z.
II. Had German technology been present in Car y also, its sales would have crossed car
X’s sales.

68. Statement: Railway does not provide concession to any one for travelling to certain
holiday destinations.
I. Railway services are available for travelling to these holiday destinations.
II. Railways provides concession to certain persons for travelling to places other than
these holiday destinations.

69. Statement: Travellers with a ticket for the second class if found travelling in the first
class compartments would be penalized – Notice in the compartments of a train.
I. Travellers with a ticket for the first class are also not allowed to travel in the second
class compartments.
II. Inspections are carried out in the train to check the tickets.

70. Statement: The prices of petrol and diesel have remained unchanged only in Nigeria
since the past three years.
I. Petrol and diesel prices have changed elsewhere in the World during these three
years.
II. Before this three years period, petrol and diesel were available at a price different
from the present rates

Bank Preparation 119

Directions (Q. 61-65) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code
‘more money in market’ is written as ‘zo li aa to’
‘share in market profit’ is written as ‘vo to je li’
‘making more profit now’ is written as ‘su je zoka’
‘now the market gains’ is written as ‘do li yosu’

61. Which of the following does ‘vo’ stand for?
a) profit b) in c) share d) market e) in or profit

62. What is the code for ‘making’?
a) ka b) su c) je d) zo e) Can’t be determined

63. Which of the following is the code for ‘gain’?
a) su b) li c) yo d) do e) yo or do

64. Which of the following can be the code for ‘the more you share’?
a) doyozovo b) vowizo do c) vozowibu d) yo je vowi e) suvozo do

65. ‘toka li aa’ is a code for which of the following?
a) share more in market
b) now share more gains
c) the gains in market
d) the gains in profit
e) making money in market

Bank Preparation 118

Directions (Q. 54-60) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Seven lectures are scheduled to be held in a week. There is only one lecture on each of the
seven days of the week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday.
Chemistry is taught either on Wednesday or on Saturday. Three lectures are scheduled to be
held between Chemistry and English. Two lectures are scheduled to be held between English and
Computers. Lecture on Physics is scheduled on the day which is immediately next to the day when
lecture on Biology is scheduled. Lecture on Psychology is scheduled to be held after Mathematics
(not necessarily immediately after Mathematics). Lecture on Psychology is not scheduled for Saturday or Sunday.

54. Which of the following lectures is scheduled for Thursday?
a) Mathematics b) English c) Physics d) Biology e) Computers

55. Which of the following combinations of day-lecture is correct?
a) Saturday-Physics b) Monday-Biology c) Tuesday-English
d) Thursday-English e) Sunday-Computers

56. How many lectures are scheduled between Chemistry and Physics?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) Five

57. If Chemistry is related to Biology and Psychology is related to Computers in a certain way
based upon the given lecture schedule, then Biology will be related to which of the following
based upon the same relationship?
a) English b) Mathematics c) Physics d) Chemistry e) None of these

58. On which of the following days is the lecture on Psychology scheduled?
a) Friday b) Monday c) Tuesday d) Thursday e) None of these

59. Which of the following lecture/s is/are scheduled to be held between the lectures on
Chemistry and Physics?
a) No lecture is scheduled between these two lectures
b) Only Computers
c) Computers and Psychology
d) Computers and Biology
e) English and Mathematics

60. How many lectures are scheduled to be held between English and Mathematics?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) Five

Bank Preparation 117

Directions (Q. 46-48) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
46. a) B A H b) E D G c) C, B, F d) H, G, A e) D, F, E

47. a) ED b) FC c) AH   d) EG e) CB

48. What will come in the place of the question mark?
G D B A ?
a) E b) F c) C d) H e) A

Directions (Q. 49-50) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
49. a) Asia b) Antarctica c) Africa d) Alaska e) Australia

Directions (Q. 51-53) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in
which these appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
51. a) MPQO b) DGHF c) RUTV d) VYZX e) JMNL

52. a) AMCL b) WIVK c) GVIU d) XDZC e) HRJQ

53. a) AZMN b) BYEF c) CXUV d) FUNO e) IRDV

Bank Preparation 116

Directions (Q.41-45) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which
follow:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H study in different standards viz. 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 5th, 6th, 7th and 8th.
All of them are seated around a circular table facing the centre.
C sits third to right of H. H studies in std. 8. F sits second to left of E. E is not an immediate
neighbour of C or H. The one who studies in std. 1 is an immediate neighbour of E. Three people sit
between H and the student of std. 7.
H, C and also their immediate neighbours do not study in std. 2. Only one person sits between
the student of std. 2 and G. Students of std. 3 and 4 are immediate neighbours of each other. C is
neither in std. 4 nor in std. 3. Only one person sits between A and the student of std. 5. A does not
study in std. 2 or 3. B does not study in std. 2.

41. Which of the following is true regarding F?
a) F studies in std. 5
b) D and G are immediate neighbours of F
c) One person sits between F and the student of std. 4
d) F sits second to right of A
e) None of these

42. Who amongst the following studies in std. 3?
a) C b) F c) G d) B e) Can’t be determined

3. How many persons sit between D and the student of std. 4, when counted from the left hand
side of student of std. 4?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) Four

44. Which of the following is true?
a) Only one person is sitting between student of std. 4 and std. 6
b) D studies in std. 2
c) The one studying in std. 3 is an immediate neighbour of H
d) One person sits between H and the student of std. 2
e) None of these

45. Who amongst the following represent immediate neighbours of G?
a) A, B
b) E and the student of std. 2
c) H and the student of std. 6
d) E, F
e) A, D

Bank Preparation 115

36. What will be the area (in square metre) of 1.5 m wide garden developed around all the four
sides of a rectangular field having area equal to 300 sq. m and breadth equal to three-fourth of
the length?
a) 96 b) 105 c) 114 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

37. In a two digit positive number, the digit in the units place is equal to the square of the digit in
ten’s place, and the difference between the number and the number obtained by interchanging
the digits is 54. What is 40% of the original number?
a) 15.6 b) 39 c) 37.2 d) 24 e) None of these

38. Vishwas borrowed a total amount of Rs.30000, part of it on simple interest rate of 12% per
annum and remaining on simple interest rate of 10% per annum. If at the end of 2 years he
paid in all Rs.36480 to settle the loan amount, what was the amount borrowed at 12% per
annum?
a) Rs.16000 b) Rs.18000 c) Rs.17500 d) Rs.12000 e) None of these

39. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by ¼ and the denominator is decreased by 1/3 the
new fraction obtained is 33/64. What was the original fraction?
a) 9/11 b) 5/7 c) 3/7 d) 7/9 e) None of these

40. Twice the square of a number is more than eleven times the number by 21. The number can
have which of the following values?
a) 4 or -7/2 b) 7 or -3/2 c) 3 or -7/2 d) 9/2 or -4 e) None of these

Bank Preparation 114

31. Gaurav spent Rs.38460 on the renovation of his home, Rs.24468 on buying home theater and
the remaining 28% of the total amount he had as cash with him. What was the total amount?

a) Rs.92600 b) Rs.76500 c) Rs.87400 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

32. Which number should replace both the question marks in the following equation?
? / 944 = 59 / ?
a) 218 b) 236 c) 244 d) 264 e) None of these

33. The ages of Ranjana and Rakhi are in the ratio of 15:17 respectively. After 6 years the ratio of
their ages will be 9:10. What will be the age of Ranjana after 6 years?
a) 40 years b) 30 years c) 34 years d) 36 years e) None of these

34. One-seventh of a number is 38. What will 63% of that number be?
a) 174.56 b) 189.42 c) 167.58. d) 204.32 e) None of these


35. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.17000 at the end of four years is Rs.6800.
What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the
same period?
a) Rs.7889.7 b) Rs.8324 c) Rs.6990.5 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

Bank Preparation 113

27. In a class of 80 students and 5 teachers, each student got sweets that are 15% of the total
number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 25% of the total number of students.
How many sweets were there?

a) 1030 b) 1040 c) 1050 d) 1060 e) None of these

28. The product of two successive even numbers is 6888. Which is the greater of the two
numbers?
a) 78 b) 82 c) 86 ) 90 e) None of these

29. By how much 7/9th of 234 lesser than 10/13th of 247?
a) 12 b) 26 c) 38 d) 14 e) None of these

30. Bhawna decided to donate 12% of her salary to an Orphanage. On the day of donation she
changed her mind and donated Rs.2400 which was 125% of what she had decided earlier.
How much is Bhawna’s salary?
a) Rs.14750 b) Rs.16000 c) Rs.18500 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

Bank Preparation 112

Directions (Q. 22-26) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

22. What is the speed of the bus?
I. The bus covers a distance of 80 km in 5 h.
II. The bus covers a distance of 160 km in 10 h.

23. What is the ratio of the number of freshers to the number of seniors in a college?
I. The ratio of males and females in the college is 2:3.
II. There are 1125 female freshers in the college.

24. What is Mr.Mehta’s present income?
I. Mr.Mehta’s income increases by 10% every year.
II. His income will increase by Rs.2500 this year.

25. What is Nidhi’s age?
I. Nidhi is 3 times younger to Rani.
II. Surekha is twice the age of Rani and the sum of their ages is 72.

26. What is the ratio of the total number of girls to the total number of boys in the school?
I. The ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls, last year was 4:5.
II. There are 3500 students in the school out of which 60% are boys.

Bank Preparation 111

16. 8 men working for 9 hours a day complete a piece of work in 20 days. In how many days can
7 men working for 10 hours a day complete the same piece of work?
a) 21 days b) 20-3/5 days c) 20-1/2 days d) 21-3/7 days e) None of these

17. If 12a + 12b = 45, what is the average of a and b ?
a) 3.75 b) 1.875 c) 3.875 d) 1.75 e) None of these

18. How much part of a day is 45 minutes?
a) 1/42 b) 1/24 c) 1/32 d) 1/48 e) None of these

19. Samir drove at the speed of 45 km from home to a resort. Returning over the same route, he
got stuck in traffic and took an hour longer, also he could drive only at the speed of 40 km.
How many kilometres did he drive each way?
a) 250 km b) 300 km c) 310 km d) 275 km e) None of these

20. What is the greater of two numbers whose product is 640, if the sum of the two numbers,
exceeds their difference by 32 ?
a) 45 b) 50 c) 55 d) 40 e) None of these

21. On a test consisting of 150 questions, Rita answered 40% of the first 75 questions correctly.
What percent of the other 75 questions does she need to answer correctly for her grade on the
entire exam to be 60%?
a) 80 b) 70 c) 40 d) 50 e) None of these

Bank Preparation 110

11. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘FLEECED’ be arranged?
a) 840 b) 2520 c) 1680 d) 49 e) None of these

12. The perimeter of a square is 164 metres. What is the area of the square?
a) 1089 sq. metres b) 1764 sq. metres c) 1661 sq. metres d) 1681 sq. metres e) None of these

13. The product of two successive numbers is 1980. Which is the smaller number?
a) 34 b) 44 c) 35 d) 45 e) None of these

14. The difference between 55% of a number and 25% of the same number is 11.10. What is 75%
of that number?
a) 27.75 b) 37 c) 21.25 d) 45 e) None of these

15. The average of the ages of 3 friends is 23. Even if the age of 4th friend is added the average
remains 23. What is the age of 4th friend?
a) 32 b) 21 c) 23 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Bank Preparation 109

Directions (Q. 6-10) Study the information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
A school has a total of 1200 students. The ratio of girls to boys in the school is 3:2. All the
students have enrolled in hobby classes viz. Singing, Dancing, Martial Arts and Cooking. One-twelfth of the boys have enrolled in only cooking classes. 25% of the girls have enrolled in Cooking and Singing classes together. Number of boys enrolled in only Martial Arts classes is 150% of the number of girls enrolled in the same. Number of students enrolled in only Dancing is 26% of the total number of students. 5% of the girls have enrolled in only Martial Arts classes. One-third of the boys enrolled in only Dancing classes. 35% of the girls enrolled in Singing, dancing and Martial Arts together and the remaining enrolled in only Cooking. 15% of the boys enrolled in Cooking and Singing classes together and the remaining enrolled in Singing, Dancing and Martial Arts classes together.

6. Number of boys enrolled in Cooking and Singing classes together is what percent of the girls enrolled in the same?
a) 48 b) 36 c) 20 d) 25 e) None of these

7. What is the total number of students learning Martial Arts?
a) 96 b) 496 c) 342 d) 128 e) None of these

8. How many girls are enrolled in only Cooking classes?
a) 280 b) 252 c) 154 d) 100 e) None of these

9. How many boys learn Singing?
a) 226 b) 184 c) 72 d) 96 e) None of these

10. What is the respective ratio of girls to boys enrolled in only Dancing classes?
a) 8:7 b) 14:17 c) 19:20 d) 12:7 e) None of these

Bank Preparation 108

1. 73% of 8523 + 32% of 6245 = ?
a) 8042.21 b) 8136.28 c) 8625.35 d) 8220.19 e) None of these

2. √804357 = ?
a) 93 b) 76 c) 83 d) 86 e) None of these

3. 8226 ÷ 15 ÷ 5 = ?
a) 2156 b) 109.68 c) 185.56 d) 2742 e) None of these

4. 182.225 × 21.652 × 33.584 = ?
a) 132507 b) 149428 c) 120426 d) 106438 e) 112642

5. 63.5% of 8924.2 + ?% of 5324.4 = 6827.5862
a) 36 b) 22 c) 17 d) 31 e) 9

Bank Preparation 107

Directions (Q. 111-120) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words have been suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Traditional bank architecture is based on bank branches. These branches ensure the physical (111) of a customer’s savings. A customer may go there to deposit and withdraw money, (112) loans and
(113) in other financial transactions. In the past two decades banking architecture has changed – the
Automated Teller Machine (ATM) has been a big (114) and credit and debit cards have created new
financial spaces. (115) the bank branch has remained the bedrock of banking system – after all a person needs a bank account in a branch before he can operate a debit or ATM card. This may be about to change as technocrats now (116) cell phones as the new architecture of virtual banks. This has the potential to make branches (117). Cell phone banking looks especially relevant for India since it can penetrate the countryside cheaply and (118). The World over cell phones are spreading at a (119) rate and in India alone new cell phone connections are growing at the rate of six million a month a rate of customer (120) that no bank can dream of.

111. a) confidentiality b) guarantee c) knowledge d) security e) presence
112. a) disburse b) sanction c) negotiate d) advance e) credit
113. a) enable b) engage c) pursue d) interact e) operate
114. a) luxury b) innovation c) drawback d) hurdle e) consequence
115. a) Yet b) Until c) Despite d) Although e) Even
116. a) engineer b) assess c) view d) realize e) display
117. a) retreat b) expired c) essential d) obsolete e) extant
118. a) indiscriminately b) effectively c) moderately d) occasionally e) compulsorily
119. a) competitive b) projected c) phenomenal d) gradual e) proportionate
120. a) satisfaction b) relationship c) discount d) base e) expansion

Bank Preparation 106

Directions (Q. 106-110): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

A. Therefore, it is important to source a large part of economic growth in agriculture, in rural non agricultural activities and in productive expansion of the informal sector which all have high
employment elasticities, as well as in an export strategy based on labour intensive exports.

B. It is important because it creates more resources and has the potential of creating more space for
the involvement of the poor.

C. If the growth is sourced upon those sectors of the economy or those activities that have a natural
tendency to involve the poor in their expansion, such growth helps poverty eradication.

D. Economic growth is important.

E. But this involvement depends on the sources of growth and the nature of growth.

106. Which of the following should be the First sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

107. Which of the following should be the Second sentence after rearrangement?
a) E b) D c) C d) B e) A

108. Which of the following should be the Third sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

109. Which of the following should be the Fourth sentence after rearrangement?
a) E b) D c) C d) B e) A

110. Which of the following should be the Fifth sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

Bank Preparation 105

Directions (Q. 101-105): Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be wrongly spelt. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words are correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.

101. Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be wrongly spelt. Find out
the word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words are correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.

a) Adventure b) Demonstration c) Environment d) Innosent e) All Correct

102. Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be wrongly spelt. Find out
the word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words are correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.

a) Limitasion b) Dependable c) Miniature d) Qualitative e) All Correct

103. Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be wrongly spelt. Find out
the word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words are correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.

a) Lucrative b) Ancestral c) Performanse d) Incidentally e) All Correct

104. Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be wrongly spelt. Find out
the word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words are correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.

a) Futility b) Separasion c) Embarrassment d) Positively e) All Correct

105. Below the four words are given. One of these four words may be wrongly spelt. Find out
the word which is wrongly spelt, if there is any. The number of that word is your answer. If all
the words are correctly spelt mark All correct as the answer.

a) Tournament b) Enhancement c) Amazingly d) Continuation e) All Correct

Bank Preparation 104

Directions (Q. 96-100) Read this sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the
error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of
punctuation if any).

96. Attributing rise in inflation partly for withholding of food stocks by traders/the minister said
that/he was committed/to easing this supply side bottleneck.
a) Attributing rise in inflation partly for withholding of food stocks by traders
b) The minister said that
c) He was committed
d) To easing this supply side bottleneck.
e) No error

97. India’s largest utility vehicle and tractor maker/is again in the race to acquire/for stake in Swedish
company/which is a premium car maker.
a) India’s largest utility vehicle and tractor maker
b) Is again in the race to acquire
c) For stake in Swedish company
d) Which a premium car maker
e) No error

98. With sale of branded or premium petrol becoming almost nil/due to high duties,/a government
appointed panel has recommended/slashing excise duty to make them at par with regular fuel.
a) With sale of branded or premium petrol becoming almost nil
b) Due to high duties
c) A government appointed panel has recommended
d) Slashing excise duty to make them at par with regular fuel
e) No error

99. Keeping in mind/that power cuts are on different days in different areas/the change in the factory
law would enable individual factories within an area/to determining their own weekly holidays.
a) Keeping in mind
b) That power cuts are on different days in different areas
c) The change in the factory law would enable individual factories within an area
d) To determining their own weekly holidays
e) No error

100. Police officers have refused on identify the bystander,/who is the only eyewitness to the
crime,/but have said that the investigating team would explore/if he could be a witness in the
case.
a) Police officers have refused on identify the bystander
b) Who is the only eyewitness to the crime
c) But have said that the investigating team would explore
d) If he could be a witness in the case
e) No error

Bank Preparation 103

Directions (Q. 91-95): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

A. The researchers in these companies claim that they could do better by allowing their employees to
doze off at work place.

B. The dreams, while at work, are thus helpful to solve crucial problems.

C. Would you believe that some UK based companies are arranging for bed at the work place?

D. The reason, they claim, could be that dreams produce creative solutions.

E. We only hope that these crucial problems in UK are different from those of ours.

F. But it is true and is considered as a step to improve quality of their products.

91. Which of the following should be the First sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these

92. Which of the following should be the Third sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these

93. Which of the following should be the Fourth sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these

94. Which of the following should be the Fifth sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) None of these

95. Which of the following should be the Sixth sentence after rearrangement?
a) A b) B c) C d) E e) None of these

Bank Preparation 102

Directions (Q. 81-90) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below it.
A long time ago, on a big tree in the lap of the mountain, lived a bird named Sindhuka. It was a
rather special bird because its droppings turned into gold as soon as they hit the ground. One day, a hunter came to the tree in search of prey and he saw Sindhuka's droppings hit the ground and turn into gold. The hunter was struck with wonder. He though, "I have been hunting birds and small animals since I was a boy, but in all my 80 years, I have never seen such a miraculous creature. He
decided that he had to catch the bird somehow. He climbed the tree and skillfully set a trap for the bird. The bird, quite unaware of the danger it was in, stayed on the tree and sang merrily. But it was soon caught in the hunter's trap. The hunter immediately seized it and shoved it into a cage. The hunter took the bird home joyfully. But as he had time to think over his good fortune later, he suddenly realised, "If the king comes to know of this wonder, he will certainly take away the bird from me and he might even punish me for keeping such a rare treasure all to myself. So it would be safer and more honourable if I were to go to the king and present the unique bird to him," The next day, the hunter took the bird to the king and presented it to him in court with great reverence. The king was delighted to receive such an unusual and rare gift. He told his courtiers to keep the bird safe and feed it with the best bird food available. The king's prime minister though, was reluctant to accept the bird. He said "O Rajah, how can you believe the word of a foolish hunter accept this bird? Has anyone in our kingdom ever seen a bird dropping gold? The hunter must be either crazy or telling lies. I think it is best that you release the bird from the cage." After a little thought, the king felt that his prime minister's words were correct. So he ordered the bird to be released. But as soon as the door of the cage was thrown open, the bird flew out, perched itself on a nearby doorway and defecated. To everyone's surprise, the dropping immediately turned into gold. The king mourned his loss.

81. Which of the following is possible the most appropriate title for the story?
a) The Skilled Hunter
b) The King’s Prime Minister
c) The King’s Defeat
d) The Bird with the Gold Dropping
e) The Trials and Tribulations of the Foolish Bird Sindhuka

82. Which of the following emotions made the hunter gift the bird to the king?
a) Respect b) Joy c) Pride d) Fear e) Awe

83. Which of the following is true according to the story?
a) Birds like Sindhuka were very common in the area near the mountain
b) Sindhuka remained caged for the rest of its life
c) Sindhuka was unaware of the trap laid by the hunter
d) The King, when told to not accept the bird, did not listen to his Prime Minister
e) All are true

84. Why was the king’s Prime Minister reluctant to accept the bird?
a) He believed that the bird would die if caged
b) He know about the hunter’s habit of lying
c) He believed that the bird would bring bad luck to the king
d) His sources had informed him that the hunter was crazy
e) None of these

85. How did the hunter find Sindhuka?
a) He had read stories about the bird and had set traps at various locations in the city
b) He followed the bird’s droppings
c) He was on the lookout for a prey when he chanced upon it
d) People from the city had informed him about the bird’s whereabouts
e) He was attracted by the birds calls

Directions (Q. 86-88) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words
printed in bold as used in the passage.
86. Rather
a) Regular b) Quite c) Instead d) But e) Known

87. Release
a) Free b) Vacate c) Vent d) Let expire e) Make public

88. Reverence
a) Respect b) Detail c) Astonishment d) Hope e) Remembrance

Directions (Q. 89-90) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

89. Reluctant
a) True b) Clever c) Averse d) Hesitant e) Keen

90. Skilfully
a) Angrily b) Haphazardly c) Highly d) Cheaply e) Deftly

Bank Preparation 101

76. If ‘PARK’ is coded as ‘5394’, ‘SHIRT’ is coded as ‘17698’ and ‘PANDIT’ is coded as ‘532068’,
how would you code ‘NISHAR’ in that code language?
a) 266734 b) 231954 c) 201739 d) 261739 e) None of these

77. If ‘GERMAN’ is coded as 126534, ‘FOOD’ is called as 9770 and CORN is coded as 8T64, then
what will be the code for ‘FRANCE’?
a) 961063 b) 963482 c) 963428 d) 964382 e) None of these

Directions (Q. 78-80) Study the following statements A, B, C, D and E and then answer the questions
that follow.
A. 1, 5, 9 means : ‘you better go’
B. 1, 6, 7 means : ‘better come here’
C. 5, 6, 7 means : ‘you come here’
D. 1, 5, 6 means : ‘better you here’
E. 3, 7, 9 means : ‘come and go’

78. Which of the following groups of minimum statements are necessary to find the code number of
‘better’?
a) A and B b) D and E c) C and E d) B and E e) None of these

79. Which numeral means ‘and’?
a) 6 b) 9 c) 3 d) 7 e) None of these

80. Which numeral is used for ‘go’?
a) 9 b) 5 c) 7 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

Bank Preparation 100

Directions (Q. 71-75) Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. B is 2nd to the right of D who is 3rd to the right of F. C is 2nd to the left of A who is 2nd to the left of F. G is 3rd to the right of E.

71. In which of the following combinations is the 1st person sitting between the 2nd and the 3rd
persons?
a) GCD b) FGH c) EFH d) ABE e) None of these

72. Who is 3rd to the right of H?
a) G b) D c) C d) Data inadequate e) None of these

73. Who is to the immediate right of A?
a) B b) E c) F d) Data inadequate e) None of these

74. What is H’s position with respect to B?
a) 5th to the right b) 3rd to the left c) 5th to the left d) 3rd to the right e) 4th to the left

75. Who is to the immediate left of G?
a) H b) F c) D d) Data inadequate e) None of these

Bank Preparation 99

Directions (Q. 66-70) A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement.
Input: 17 put show on 39 27 85 gold
Step I: show 17 put on 39 27 85 gold
Step II: show 85 17 put on 39 27 gold
Step III: show 85 put 17 on 39 27 gold
Step IV: show 85 put 39 17 on 27 gold
Step V: show 85 put 39 on 17 27 gold
Step VI: show 85 put 39 on 27 17 gold
Step VII: show 85 put 39 on 27 gold 17
And step VII is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropirate step for the given input.

66. Input: glass full 15 37 water now 85 67
Which of the following will be Step VI of the above input?
a) water 85 now 67 full glass 15 37
b) water 85 now 67 glass full 15 37
c) water 85 now 67 glass full 15 37
d) There will be no such step
e) None of these

67. Step II of an input is: ultra 73 12 16 mail sort 39 kite Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
a) VIII b) IX c) VII d) VI e) None of these

68. Step III of an input is: win 75 voice 15 39 store gap 26 Which of the following is definitely the input?
a) voice 15 win 75 39 store gap 26
b) voice win 75 15 39 store gap 26
c) 15 75 win voice store gap 26
d) Can’t be determined
e) None of these

69. Step II of an input is: tube 83 49 34 garden flower rat 56 How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
a) Four b) Five c) Six d) Three e) None of these

70. Input: hunt for 94 37 good 29 48 book How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
a) Four b) Five c) Six d) Seven e) None of these

Bank Exam Preparation 98

Directions (Q. 61-65) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of combinations correctly represents the group of letter, mark (e) i.e., ‘None of these’ as your answer.
 
Letter                       W P J Q E T I A U F D B V M H
Digit/Symbol code   5  6 9 1  2 3@ 4 © 8 % * 7   #  $
Conditions:
(i) If the 1st letter is a consonant and the 4th letter is a vowel both are to be coded as the code for
the vowel.
(ii) If the 2nd letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as !.
(iii) If both the 1st and the last letters are consonants both their codes are to be interchanged.

61. MBUVWE
a) #*©#52 b) 7*©#52 c) #©*752 d) #!©75! e) None of these

62. AJBMFU
a) 49*48© b) #9*#8© c) 49*#8© d) ©9*#84 e) None of these

63. AEIMVH
a) 42@#7$ b) 42@47$ c) #2@47$ d) 4!@#7! e) None of these

64. THAFIQ
a) 3$48@3 b) 1$48@3 c) 1$48@1 d) 3$48@1 e) None of these

65. WMEIJU
a) @#2@9© b) 5#2@9© c) @#259© d) 5#259© e) None of these

Bank Preparation 97

Directions (Q. 56-60) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

56. Statements: Some pencils are windows.
All windows are roads.
Some roads are cups.
All cups are chains.
Conclusions: I. Some chains are pencils.
II. Some cups are pencils.
III. Some chains are windows.
IV. Some roads are pencils.
a) None follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only IV follows
d) Only III and IV follow
e) Only III follows

57. Statements: Some beds are mirrors.
Some mirrors are dolls.
Some dolls are cheques.
Some cheques are pins.
Conclusions: I. Some pins are dolls.
II. Some cheques are beds.
III. Some cheques are mirrors.
IV. Some dolls are beds.
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows
e) Only IV follows

58. Statements: All chocolates are holders.
No holder is lamp.
Some lamps are desks.
All desks are pens.
Conclusions: I. Some pens are holders.
II. Some desks are lamps.
III. No pen is holder.
IV. Some pens are chocolates.
a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only either I or III follows
e) Only either I or III and II follow

59. Statements: All glasses are rooms.
Some rooms are planes.
All planes are ducks.
Some ducks are lanterns.
Conclusions: I. Some lanterns are planes.
II. Some ducks are rooms.
III. Some rooms are glasses.
IV. Some ducks are glasses.
a) Only I and II follow
b) Only II and III follow
c) Only I, II and III follow
d) All I, II, III and IV follow
e) None of these

60. Statement: Some chairs are tents.
Some tents are jugs.
All jugs are glasses.
All glasses are pots.
Conclusions: I. Some pots are tents.
II. Some pots are chairs.
III. Some glasses are chairs.
IV. Some glasses are tents.
a) Only I and II follow
b) Only II and III follow
c) Only I and III follow
d) Only I and IV follow
e) None of these

Bank Preparation 96

Directions (Q. 51-55) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
B M % R 3 J @ K © D F 6 9 W 4 * N E P 2 $ A Y 5 I Q Z # 7 U G

51. Which of the following is the 6th to the left of the 20th from the left end of the above arrangement?
a) J b) Q c) W d) E e) None of these

52. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

53. If all the symbols and all the vowels are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the
following will be the 12th from the right end?
a) 9 b) 6 c) P d) Y e) None of these

54. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

55. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement? MRJ ©F9 *E2 ?
a) Y5I b) YIQ c) A5Q d) YIZ e) None of these

Bank Preparation 95

46. In a certain code BUILDER is written as JVCKSFE. How is SEALING written in that code?
a) BTFKHOJ b) JOHKBFT c) TFBKHOJ d) BFTKJOH e) None of these

47. If ‘R’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘T’ denotes ‘⎯’, ‘M’ denotes ‘+’ and ‘W’ denotes ‘×’, then
27 T 15 R 3 W 4 M 6 = ?
a) 7 b) 13 c) ⎯23 d) 1 e) None of these

48. In a certain code WAVE is written as ‘5%3*’ and WINS is written as ‘59@©’. How is SANE
written in that code?
a) ©9@* b) *%©@ c) ©@%* d) ©%@* e) None of these

49. Which of the following is the middle digit of the 3rd highest among the five three digit numbers
given below? 368 931 472 715 647
a) 6 b) 3 c) 7 d) 1 e) 4

50. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having a different height, Q is shorter than only T and S is shorter
than P and Q. Who among them is the shortest?
a) R b) S c) P d) Data inadequate e) None of these

Bank Preparation 94

41. In a row of 40 children, R is 11th from the right and there are 15 children between R and M. What
is M’s position from the left and of the row?
a) 14th b) 15th c) 13th d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

42. In a certain code language ‘how many are there’ is written as ‘kana ta da’ and ‘many are welcome
here’ is written as ‘na pa nika’. How is ‘how’ written in that code language?
a) ta b) da c) ta or da d) Data inadequate e) None of these

43. If the positions of the1st and the 5th digits of the number 83591427 are interchanged, similarly the sitions of the 2nd and the 6th digits are interchanged and so on then which of the following will
be the 2nd digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
a) 5 b) 3 c) 9 d) 2 e) None of these

44. How many such pairs of letters are there in the words ADJUSTING each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

45. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LBAE using each letter only
once in each word?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

Bank Preparation 93

36. In a business, A and C invested amounts in the ratio 2:1, whereas the ratio between amounts
invested by A and B was 3:2. If Rs.157300 was their profit, how much amount did B receive?
a) Rs.24200 b) Rs.36300 c) Rs.48400 d) Rs.72600 e) None of these

37. 30 labourers, working 7 hours a day can finish a piece of work in 18 days. If the labourers work 6
hours a day, then the number of labourers to finish the same piece of work in 30 days, will be:
a) 15 b) 21 c) 22 d) 25 e) None of these

38. X can do a piece of work in 40 days. He works at it for 8 days and then Y finished it in 16 days.
How long will they together take to complete the work?
a) 13-1/3 days b) 15 days c) 20 days d) 56 days e) None of these

39. 12 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each tank is 13.5 litres. How many buckets
will be needed to fill the same tank, if the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres?
a) 8 b) 15 c) 16 d) 18 e) None of these

40. A motorist covers a distance of 39 km in 45 minutes by moving at a speed of x kmph for the first
15 minutes, then moving at double the speed for the next 20 minutes and then again moving at his
original speed for the rest of the journey. Then, x is equal to:
a) 31.2 b) 36 c) 40 d) 52 e) None of these

Bank Preparation 92

31. A number is doubled and 9 is added. If the resultant is trebled, it becomes 75. What is that
number?
a) 3.5 b) 6 c) 8 d) Can’t be determined e) None of these

32. The ratio between the present ages of A and B is 5:3 respectively. The ratio between A’s age 4
years ago and B’s age 4 years hence is 1:1. What is the ratio between A’s age 4 years ago and B’s
age 4 years ago?
a) 1:3 b) 2:1 c) 3:1 d) 4:1 e) None of these

33. If Rs.2800 is 2/7 percent of the value of a house, the worth of the house (in Rs.) is:
a) 800000 b) 980000 c) 1000000  d) 1200000 e) None of these

34. At what profit percent must an article be sold so that by selling at half that price, there may be a
loss of 30%?
a) 25% b) 36% c) 40% d) 42% e) None of these

35. In a bag, there are coins of 25p, 10p and 5p in the ratio of 1:2:3. If there are Rs.30 in all, how
many 5p coins are there?
a) 150 b) 50 c) 100 d) 200 e) None of these