Monday, November 30, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 334

Directions (Q.176-190): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is 5. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

176. 1) The transit system's underground/ 2) tunnels and stations will/ 3) be constructed/
4) next heritage structures./ 5) No error

177. 1) Residents have been planting/ 2) the ornamental trees outside/ 3) their homes
and in lawns to/ 4) add beauty and give their place a grand look./ 5) No error

178. 1) A diamond jeweller's peon/ 2) tipped off a gang/ 3) about the gold 4) in his employer's vault./ 5) No error

179. 1) He said that the performance of the Indian team/ 2) was satisfactory at the
international meet/ 3) and that they learnt a lot from/ 4) watching top seeded
players through action at the grand slam/ 5)No error

180. 1)Watching the Exponential /2) talent of world tennis/ 3)Was the best things/
4)to happen to him./ 5) No error

181. 1) The meeting took place a day after/ 2) the agency held a meeting with project
contractors/ 3) to evaluate steps that being taken to/4) ensure that the buidlings were not affected.
5) No error

182. 1) The director explained/ 2) the theme and/3) the concept of/4) the international
folk festival./5) No error

183. 1) The fight among/2) rival candidates between the medium/ 3) of catchy slogans/ 4) has started. 5/) No error

184. 1) Acting on a tip-off/2) the anti-robbery squadled/ 3) by inspectors laid/4) a trap
for the robbers/ 5) No error

185. 1) The process of/2) revising figures of damage/ 3) to get additional compensation/
4) has began./5) No error

186. 1) Farmers who grow the crop/ 2) are the worse hit, as the investment/ 3) they
make on a crop is/ 4)huge as compared to the profit./5) No error

187. 1) The govenrment is made it/2) mandatory for pharmacies to send/ 3) copies of
medical bills along with/ 4) prescriptions of drugs and details of patients./ 5) No
error.

188. 1) While these schools have/ 2) a strong traditonal hold, the reason for/ 3) forming
a consortium in India is to encourage /4) cultural diversity for their institutes./
5) No error.

189. 1) The Government soon will make/ 2) it mandatory for all private hospitals/ 3)
to notify infectious cases/ 4) as soon as they are detected./5) No error.

190. 1) School children, who so far/ 2) have had rationed access to/ 3) the few playgrounds
on the city must be/ 4) happy by the recent move./ 5)No error.

Sunday, November 29, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 333

Directions (Q. 171-175): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

171. Forest department officials said that when the elephants were made to --- from their trucks, they went straight to the spot where they had been --- during the camp.
1) jump, killed 2) alight, tied 3) enter, hurt 4) step, played 5) exit, enjoyed

172. Excise officials seized pouches of whisky --- a bus travelling --- Maharashtra.
1) from, to 2) in, for 3) for, towards 4) inside, on 5)through, till

173. Organisations ---- for the victims --- the inhuman and unjust attitude of the government.
1) fighting, applauded 2) lobbying, supported 3) working, condemned 4) stand, opposed
5) trying, spoke

174. A collision between two buses --- six people dead, --- the driver of one of the buses.
1) made, also 2) left, including 3) caused, combined 4) resulted, except 5) got, surpassing

175. The court --- revenue authorities and PCB officials to --- teams and visit pharma units
1) directed, form 2) announced, arrange 3) commanded, display 4) ruled, make 5) told, carve

Saturday, November 28, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 332

Directions (Q. 161-165): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No correction is required', mark (5) as the answer.

161. A freezing morning accompanied by a dense cover of fog set the toning for the coming weekend.
1) keeping tone 2) started the toning 3) kept the tone 4) set the tone 5) No correction required

162. The jail is in the news again with the finding of a pistol and some bullets?
1) to finding 2) with find 3) finding 4) on found 5) No correction required

163. The space-crunched city throws up several stories of struggle that schools have
had putup with to win playgrounds for their students?
1) have had to put up to 2) had put up on 3) have had to put up with 4) had to put up to
5) No correction required

164. Emotions rang high as both families were taken to the police station last night?
1) Emotions went higher 2) Emotion became high 3) Emotionally high 4) Emotions ran high
5) No Correction required

165. Work at all the court complexes was paralysed as lawyers went on a day-long
strike as a mark of protest?
1) for a one day strike 2) for a strike 3) on a day's long strike 4) on a day-long striking
5) No correction required

Directions (Q. 166-170): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) The policy makers in most of the developing economies recognise this importance and have been implementing a host of programmes and measures to achieve rural developments objectives.

(B) While some of these countries have achieved impressive results from those programmes and measures, others have failed to make a significant dent in the problem of persistent rural underdevelopment.

(C) The socio-economic disparties between rural and urban areas are windening and creating tremendous presssure on the social and economic fabric of many such developing economics

(D) These factors, among many others, tend to highlight the importance of rural development.

(E) Although millions of rural people have escaped poverty as a result of rural development in many Asian Countries, a large majority of rural people continue to suffer from persistent poverty.

166. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

167. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

168. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) C 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) E

169. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

170. Which of the following should SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) D 2) E 3) C 4) B 5) A

Friday, November 27, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 331

Directions (Q. 151-160): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Rural healthcare in India is (151) by a huge gap between supply and demand. Currently, rural healthcare needs are (152) either by limited government facilities and private nursing homes, which have not bean able to keep pace with increasing demand, (153) by a number of quacks who practise medicine in rural areas. The quality of infrastructure is usually poor and people (154) up having to go to nearby large cities if they need high-quality care. Rural India deserves better, since the ability to pay has gone up over the last few years, driven by growth in income and penetration of government healthcare programmes. Increasing demand, (155) with the failure of existing infrastructure to scale,
has resulted in rural healthcare (156) a large under-served market. Absence of a viable business model (157) conversion of the huge rural expenditure on health into an economic activity that generates incomes and (158) the poor. It is this (159) that entrepreneurs are looking to (160).

151. 1) Performed 2) displayed 3) furthered 4) characterised 5) made
152. 1) stopped 2) met 3) elevated 4) discussed 5) set
153. 1) also 2) nor 3) but 4) or 5) and
154. 1) end 2) give 3) fed 4) start 5) set
155. 1) couple 2) combined 3) mentioning 4) engaged 5) resulting
156. 1) become 2) happening 3) being 4) exists 5) is
157. 1) to 2) makes 3) so 4) ceasing 5) prevents
158. 1) generates 2) supplies 3) lists 4) turns 5) serves
159. 1) gap 2) truth 3) progress 4) catastrophes 5) divides
160. 1) fills 2) access 3) plug 4) form 5) distance

Thursday, November 26, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 330

Directions (Q. 96-100): Study the information carefully to answer the questions
that follow.
A Company produced five different products, Viz mobile phone, pen drive, calculator, television and washing machine. The total number of all the five products is 1650. 24% of the total number of products is mobile phones. One-sixth of the total number of products is pen drives. 14% of the total number of products is calculators. Remaining products are either television or washing machine. The number of washing machines is 50 more than the number of televisions produced.

96. What is the ratio of the number of washing machines to the number of calculators produced by the company?
1) 17:11 2) 19:11 3) 11:17 4) 19:13 5) None of these

97. If 24 percent of the pen drives are defective, What is the number of pen drives which are not defective?
1) 209 2) 215 3) 219 4) 225 5) None of these
98. The number of televisions produced is approximately what percent of the total number of calculators and washing machines produced together?
1) 63 2) 55 3) 59 4) 51 5) 67

99. What is the difference between the total number of televisions and mobile phones together and the number of calculators produced?
1) 534 2) 524 3) 511 4) 523 5) None of these

100. What is the total number of pen drives, calculators and washing machines produced
by the company?
1) 907 2) 917 3) 925 4) 905 5) None of these

Wednesday, November 25, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 329

71. Rita's present age is four times her daughter's present age and two-thirds of her mother's present age. The total of the present ages of all of them is 154 years. What is the difference between Rita's and her mohter's present age?
1) 28 years 2) 34 years 3) 32 years 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

73. If twentyfive percent of three-sevenths of twenty six percent of a number is 136.5, what is the number?
1) 6300 2) 5600 3) 4800 4) 4900 5) None of these

74. The ratio between the speed of a truck, car and train is 3:8:12. The car moved uniformaly and covered a distance of 1040 km in 13 hours. What is the average speed of the truck and the train together?
1) 75Km/hr 2) 60Km/hr 3) 48km/hr 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

76. The circumference of a circle is twise the perimeter of a rectangle. The area of the circle is 5544 Sqcm. What is the area of the rectangle if the length of the rectangle is 40cm?
1) 1120 Sq cm 2) 1020 Sq cm 3) 1140 Sq cm 4) 1040 Sq cm 5) None of these

77. A 476-metre-long moving train crosses a pole in 14 seconds. The length of a platform is equal to the distance covered by the train in 20 Seconds.A man crosses the same platform in 7 minutes and 5 seconds.What is the speed of the man in metre/ second?
1) 1.8 m/s 2) 1.4 m/s 3) 1.6 m/s 4) 2 m/s 5) 1.2 m/s

Tuesday, November 24, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 328

Direction (Q. 33-35): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

33. 1) Repair 2) Mend 3) Correct 4) Rectify 5) Trouble

34. 1) Employed 2) Trained 3) Hired 4) Appointed 5) Commissioned

35. 1) Quick 2) Brisk 3) Quiet 4) Fast 5) Rapid

36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the English alphabetical
series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group if the English alphabetical series is broken into two equal halves, ie the first 13 alphabets are clubbed together and the last 13 alphabets are clubbed separately?
1) FH 2) SU 3) MA 4) CK 5) LB

Directions (Q. 61-63): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

61. 987 587 331 187 123 (?)
1) 104 2) 113 3) 107 4) 114 5) None of these

62. 125 171 263 401 585 (?)
1) 835 2) 815 3) 792 4) 788 5) None of these

63. 121 132 167 226 309 (?)
1) 424 2) 413 3) 427 4) 416 5) None of these

Monday, November 23, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 327

Directions (Q. 22-30): Study the information given below and answer the given questions.

Nine people, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J stay in a building, but not necessarily in the same order. The building has nine floors and only one person stays on one floor. All of them own one car each, and each car is of a different colour, ie blue, grey, white, black, yellow, green, red, orange and pink, but not necessarily in the same order. The Ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 9. H owns a black-coloured car and stays on an even-numbered floor.AStays on any even-numbered floor below the floor on which H stays. The one who owns an orange coloured car stays on the fourth floor. E stays on the second floor and owns a white coloured car. The one who owns a pink-coloured car stays on the third floor.A does not own a green-coloured car. There are two floors between the floors on which the people owning the red and the black-coloured cars stay. C owns a grey-coloured car. There are three floors between the floors on which C and G stay. D stays on a floor immediately above J's floor. There is one floor between the floors on which F and G stay. F does not own the pink- coloured car. The one who owns the blue car stays on the topmost floor. F does not stay on the ground floor.

22. Who amongst the following owns the green-coloured car
1) D 2) J 3) G 4) F 5) None of these

23. Who amongst the following stays on the topmost floor?
1) F 2) G 3) D 4) C 5) None of these

24. A owns a car of which of the following colours?
1) Orange 2) Pink 3) Yellow 4) Blue 5) None of these

25. Who stays on the floor which is exactly between the floor on which H stays and the floor on which A stays?
1) B 2) G 3) C 4) F 5) None of these

26. How many floors are there between the floor on which J stays and the floor on which C stays?
1) One 2) Two 3) None 4) Three 5) More than three

27. Which of the following is true as per the given information?
1) B stays on a floor immediately below the floor on which H stays.
2) G stays on a floor immediately above the floor on which A stays.
3) F stays on the eighth floor.
4) D owns the orange-coloured car. 5) None is true

28. On which of the following floors does G stays?
1) 1st 2) 6th 3) 5th 4) 7th 5) None of these

29. B is related to C in the same way as H is related to E as per the given information.
Following the same pattern, F is related to which of the following?
1) J 2) D 3) A 4) G 5) None of these

30. What is the colour of the car of the person who stays on the ground floor?
1) Red 2) Green 3) Yellow 4) Grey 5) None of these

31. How many meaningful words can be made with the alphabets D, R, H and Aeach
being used only once in each word?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

32. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TELEPATHY, each of which
has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward
directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
1) One 2) Two 3) None 4) Three 5) More than three

Sunday, November 22, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 326

Directions (Q. 16-21): Study the information given below and answer the given questions.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle, but not necessarily in the same order. Four of them are facing outside and four of them are facing the centre.
★ E faces outside. Both the immediate neighbours of E face the centre. H sits second to the right of E. B sits third to the left of E.
★ D faces the centre. Both the immediate neighbours of D face outside.
★ G sits second to the left of A. B sits third to the right of H.
★ F is an immediate neighbour of D. C is an immediate neighbour of G.
★ D is not an immediate neighbour of B.

16. Who amongst the following sits on the immediate right of H?
1) A 2) D 3) C 4) G 5) None of these

17. Who amongst the following sits third to the right of A?
1) D 2) E 3) F 4) A 5) None of these

18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, based on the information given above and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) HA 2) FH 3) GC 4) DA 5) AE

19. If all the people are made to sit in an alphabetical order, in clockwise direction, starting from A, the position of whom amongst the following remains the same (excluding A)?
1) E 2) F 3) C 4) G 5) None of these

20. How many people are seated between A and C (counting clockwise from A)?
1) Two 2) Four 3) None 4) One 5) Three

21. Who amongst the following sits exactly between F and C (and is also their neighbour)?
1) E 2) B 3) G 4) A 5) None of these

Saturday, November 21, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 325

Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the information given below and answer the given questions:

In a certain code 'facing problems with health' is coded as 'mlp hlt ngi snk', 'health problems on rise' is coded as 'hlt sa rtv mlp', 'rise with every challenge' is coded as 'snk rtv lne riy' and 'facing challenge each day' is coded as 'ngi riy nop hus'.

11. What could be a code for "lne"?
1) facing 2) with 3) every 4) rise 5) challenge

12. "riy rtv roi" could be a code for which of the following?
1) rise above challenge 2) rise health challenge 3) day rise challenge 4) with rise challenge
5) challenge every rise

13. Which of the following is the code for "facing"?
1) nop 2) rtv 3) ngi 4) snk 5) sa

14. "riy snk mlp" could be a code for which of the following?
1) problem every day 2) challenge with health 3) with health day 4) every challenge facing
5) challenge facing with

15. Which of the following is the code for 'day'?
1) riy 2) nop 3) ngi 4) hus 5) Cannot be determined

Friday, November 20, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 324

Directions (6-10): Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient in answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II are together necessary to answer the
question.

6. Who amongst P, Q, R, S and T is the tallest?
I. P is taller than Q. T is not the tallest.
II. R is taller than P. S in not the tallest.

7. In which direction is point E, with reference to point S?
I. Point D is to the east of point E. Point E is to the south of point F.
II. Point F is to the north-west to point S. Point D is to the north of point S.

8. In which month of the year did Rahul go abroad for a vacation?
I. Rahul correctly remembers that he went for a vacation in the first half of the year.
II. Rahul's son correctly remembers that they went for a vacation after 31st March but before 1st May.

9. On which day of the same week is Ramesh's exam scheduled (Monday being
the first day of the week)?
I. Ramesh correctly remembers that his exam is scheduled on a day after
Tuesday, But before Thursday of the same week.
II. Ramesh's father correctly remembers that Ramesh's exam is scheduled on
the third day of the week.

10. How many marks has Suman scored in the test?
(Maximum marks 20)
I. Suman scored two-digit marks. Her marks were not in decimals.
II. Suman scored more than 9 marks in the test

Thursday, November 19, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 323

Directions (Q 1-5) In each of the question- sets below are two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

(1-3): Statements:
All stars are bottles.
Some bottles are papers.
No paper is a calender.
1. Conclusions: I. All stars being papers is a possibility.
II. No calendar is a bottle.
2. Conclusions: I. All calenders being stars is a possibility.
II. At least some bottles are stars.
3. Conclusions: I. At least some calendars are bottles.
II. No calender is a star.
(4-5): Statements:
Some pencils are blankets.
All blankets are erasers.
4. Conclusions: I. At least some pencils are erasers.
II. All erasers being pencils is a possibility.
5. Conclusions: I. No eraser is a pencil.
II. All blankets being pencils is a possibility.

Wednesday, November 18, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 322

Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the information given below and answer the given questions:
In a certain code 'facing problems with health' is coded as 'mlp hlt ngi snk', 'health problems on rise' is coded as 'hlt sa rtv mlp', 'rise with every challenge' is coded as 'snk rtv lne riy' and 'facing challenge each day' is coded as 'ngi riy nop hus'.

11. What could be a code for "lne"?
1) facing 2) with 3) every 4) rise 5) challenge

12. "riy rtv roi" could be a code for which of the following?
1) rise above challenge 2) rise health challenge 3) day rise challenge 4) with rise challenge
5) challenge every rise

13. Which of the following is the code for "facing"?
1) nop 2) rtv 3) ngi 4) snk 5) sa

14. "riy snk mlp" could be a code for which of the following?
1) problem every day 2) challenge with health 3) with health day 4) every challenge facing
5) challenge facing with

15. Which of the following is the code for 'day'?
1) riy 2) nop 3) ngi 4) hus 5) Cannot be determined

Tuesday, November 17, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation321

Directions (6-10): Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient in answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II are together necessary to answer the
question.

6. Who amongst P, Q, R, S and T is the tallest?
I. P is taller than Q. T is not the tallest.
II. R is taller than P. S in not the tallest.

7. In which direction is point E, with reference to point S?
I. Point D is to the east of point E. Point E is to the south of point F.
II. Point F is to the north-west to point S. Point D is to the north of point S.

8. In which month of the year did Rahul go abroad for a vacation?
I. Rahul correctly remembers that he went for a vacation in the first half of the year.
II. Rahul's son correctly remembers that they went for a vacation after 31st March but before 1st May.

9. On which day of the same week is Ramesh's exam scheduled (Monday being the first day of the week)?
I. Ramesh correctly remembers that his exam is scheduled on a day after Tuesday, But before Thursday of the same week.
II. Ramesh's father correctly remembers that Ramesh's exam is scheduled on the third day of the week.

10. How many marks has Suman scored in the test?
(Maximum marks 20)
I. Suman scored two-digit marks. Her marks were not in decimals.
II. Suman scored more than 9 marks in the test.

Monday, November 16, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 320

Directions (Q 1-5) In each of the question- sets below are two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

(1-3): Statements: 
All stars are bottles.
Some bottles are papers.
No paper is a calender.

1. Conclusions: I. All stars being papers is a possibility.
II. No calendar is a bottle.

2. Conclusions: I. All calenders being stars is a possibility.
II. At least some bottles are stars.

3. Conclusions: I. At least some calendars are bottles.
II. No calender is a star.

(4-5): Statements: 
Some pencils are blankets.
All blankets are erasers.

4. Conclusions: I. At least some pencils are erasers.
II. All erasers being pencils is a possibility.

5. Conclusions: I. No eraser is a pencil.
II. All blankets being pencils is a possibility.

Sunday, November 15, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 319

Directions (Qs. 11-13): Read the following information and answer the questions given below:
A + B means A is the daughter of B
A × B means A is the son of B
A - B means A is the wife of B

11. If P × Q - S, which of the following is true?
(1) S is the wife of Q (2) S is father of P (3) P is daughter of Q (4) Q is father of P (5) None of these

12. If T - S × B -M, which of the following is not true?
(1) B is mother of S (2) M is husband of B (3) S is daughter of B (4) T is wife of S (5) None of these

13. If Z × T - S × U + P, what is U to Z?
(1) Mother (2) Grandmother (3) Father (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these

15. If A + B means A is the sister of B, A - B means A is the brother of B, A × B means A is the daughter of B, which of the following shows the relation that E is the maternal uncle of D?
(1) D + F × C (2) D - F × E (3) D × F + E+C (4) D × F × E (5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 16-20): Read the following information and answer the questions that follows:

A family consists of six members P, Q, R, S, T and U. There are two married couples. Q is a doctor and the father of T. U is the grandfather of R and is a contractor S is grandmother of T and is a housewife. There is one doctor, one contractor, one nurse, one housewife and two students in the family.

16. Who is the husband of P?
(1) R (2) U (3) Q (4) S (5) T

17. Who is the sister of T?
(1) R (2) U (3) T (4) Data inadequate(5) None of these

18. What is the profession of P?
(1) Doctor (2) Nurse (3) Doctor-or nurse (4) House wife (5) None of these

19. Which of the following are two married couples?
(1) US, QT (2) US, QP (3) TS,RU (4) US, RP (5) None of these

20. Which of the following is definitely a group of male members?
(1) QU (2) QUT (3) QUP (4) UT (5) None of these

Saturday, November 14, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 318

1. Introducing a girl, Santhosh said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law”. How is
Santhosh related to the girl?
(1) Uncle (2) Husband (3) Brother (4) Father (5) None of these

2. Pointing to a lady a man said, “the son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”. How is the
lady related to the man?
(1) Mother’s sister (2) Grandmother (3) Mother-in-law (4) Sister of the Man’s father-in-law
(5) None of these

3. Pointing to an old man, Kailas said, “his son is my son’s uncle”. How is the old man related to Kailas?
(1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Father (4) Grandfather (5) None of these

4. When Manoj saw Ashok, he recalled, he is the son of the father of the mother of his daughter.
What is Ashok to Manoj?
(1) Brother-in-law (2) Brother (3) Cousin (4) Uncle (5) Nephew

5. Pointing to a lady on the platform Geetha said, “she is the sister of the father of my mother’s
son”. What is the lady to Geetha?
(1) Mother (2) Sister (3) Aunt (4) Niece (5) None of these

6. Pointing to a lady a girl said, “she is the only daughter- in-law of the grandmother of my father’s
son”. How is the lady related to the girl?
(1) Sister-in-law (2) Mother (3) Niece (4) Mother-in-law (5) Cousin

7. Showing a lady in the park, Balu said, “she is the daughter of my grandmother’s only son”. How is
Balu related to that lady?
(1) Brother (2) Cousin (3) Father (4) Uncle (5) None of these

8. Lakshmi and Girija are Gopal’s wives. Shalini is Girija’s step-daughter. How is Lakshmi related to
Shalini?
(1) Sister (2) Mother-in-law(3) Mother (4) Step-mother (5) None of these

9. Showing the man receiving the prize Seema said, “he is the brother of my uncle’s daughter”. What
is the man to Seema?
(1) Son (2) Brother-in-law (3) Nephew (4) Uncle (5) Cousin

10. Introducing a man a woman said, “he is the only son of my mother’s mother”. How is the woman
related to the man?
(1) Mother (2) Aunt (3) Sister (4) Niece (5) None of these

Friday, November 13, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 317

1. If - means ×, × means +, + means ÷ and ÷ means -,what will be the value of 40 × 12 + 3 - 6 ÷ 60 = ?
(1) 44 (2) 7.95(3) 16 (4) 8 (5) None of these

2. If + means ÷, ÷ means -, - means × and × means +   36 × 12 + 3 ÷ 5 - 2 is
(1) 85 (2) 22 (3) 30 (4) 9 (5) None of these

3. If + means ÷ , ÷ means -, - means × and × means +, what will be the value of the following expression? 75 + 5 × 3 - 4 ÷ 6
(1) 20 (2) 21 (3) 25 (4) 12.5(5) None of these

4. ÷ means +, × means -, + means × and - means ÷ then 15 - 5 + 2 × 3 ÷ 2 = ?
(1) 36 (2) 13 (3) 5 (4) 4 (5) None of these

5. + means ÷, × means -, ÷ means × and - means +. Then 5 - 12 + 2 × 3 ÷ 3 = ?
(1) 22 (2) 32 (3) 15.9(4) 2 (5) None of these

7. a denotes ×, b denotes ÷, c denotes + and d denotes - then 8a3c24b12d19 = ?
(1) 70 (2) 7 (3) 14 (4) 31 (5) None of these

8. If + stands for divison, - stands for equal to, × stands for addition, ÷ stands for greater than, =
stands for less than, > stands for multiplication and < stands for subtraction, which of the following
alternatives is correct?
(1) 5 + 2 × 1 = 3 + 4 >1 (2) 5 > 2 × 1 - 3 > 4 < 1 (3) 5 × 2 < 1 - 3 < 4 × 1 (4) 5 < 2 × 1+ 3 > 4 × 1

9. $ means -, * means +, @ means ÷, # means ×, then 3 # 5 * 63 @ 7 $ 12 = ?
(1) 52 (2) 22 (3) 12 (4) 1 (5) None of these

10. M denotes ×, D denotes ÷, A denotes + , S denotes - Then 25S72D12A1M6 is
(1) 25 (2) 20 (3) 35 (4) 2 (5) None of these

Thursday, November 12, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 316

Directions (Qs. 11-15): Read the following information and answer questions 11 to 15
(i) Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, & H are sitting in a circle facing the centre
(ii) A, who is sitting immediately between G and C, is just opposite to F.
(iii) E, who is sitting immediately between ‘H’ and ‘C’ is second to the right of A and second to
the left of F.
(iv) D is sitting second to the left of G.

11. Who are the three friends sitting immediately to the right of B?
(1) DFH (2) GAC (3) ACE (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

12. Who is sitting between D and G?
(1) A (2) F (3) B (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

13. Who are the immediate neighbours of D?
(1) B and F (2) F and H (3) B and G (4) B and H (5) None of these

14. Who is sitting directly opposite to G?
(1) E (2) F (3) H (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

15. Who is sitting directly opposite to C?
(1) D (2) F (3) B (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 16-20): P, Q, R, S, T and X are members of a family. There are two married couples. Q is an engineer and is father of T. X is grandfather of R and is a lawyer. S is grandmother of T and is a housewife. There is one engineer, one lawyer, one teacher one housewife and two students in the family.

16. Who is the husband of P?
(1) R (2) X (3) Q (4) S (5) T

17. Which of the following are the two married couples?
(1) XS, QP (2) XS, QT (3) XS, RP (4) TS, RX (5) None of these

18. Which of the following is definitely a group of male members?
(1) Q, X, T (2) X, T (3) Q, X, P (4) Q, X (5) None of these

19. Who is the sister of T?
(1) R (2) S (3) P (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

20. Which of the following can be P’s profession?
(1) Housewife (2) Engineer (3) Teacher (4) Engineer or Teacher (5)Housewife or Teacher

V Directions (Qs. 21-25): Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F are to be staged one on each day from
Monday to Saturday. The schedule of the plays is to be in accordance with the following:
A must be staged a day before E. C must not be staged on Tuesday. B must be staged on the day
following the day on which F is staged. D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B. E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.

21. Which of the following plays immediately follows B?
(1) A (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

22. Which of the following plays is on Monday?
(1) E (2) F (3) C (4) B (5) A

23. Play D is between which of the following pairs of plays?
(1) B and E (2) E and F (3) A and E (4) C and E (5) C and F

24. Which of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday?
(1) E, A, B, F, D, C (2) A, F, B, E, D, C (3) A, F, B, C, D, E (4) F, A, B, E, D, C (5) None of these

25. Play C cannot definitely be staged on which of the following days in addition to Tuesday?
(1) Monday (2) Wednesday (3) Friday (4) Thursday (5) Saturday

Wednesday, November 11, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 315

Directions (Qs. 1-5): In a group of 5 persons A, B, C, D and E. B and C are intelligent in Mathematics and Geography. A and C are intelligent in Mathematics and History. B and D are intelligent in Political Science and Geography. D and E are intelligent in Political Science and Biology. E is intelligent in Biology, History and Political Science.

1. Who is intelligent in Political Science, Geography and Biology?
(1) E (2) D (3) C (4) B (5) A

2. Who is intelligent in Mathematics, Political Science and Geography?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

3. Who is intelligent in Mathematics and History but not in Geography?
(1) C (2) E (3) A (4) B (5) D

4. Who is intelligent in Mathematics, Geography and History?
(1) E (2) A (3) D (4) C (5) B

5. Who is intelligent in Political Science, History and Biology?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Directions (Qs. 6-10): Five friends A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is
sitting next to D, D is not sitting near E, E is on the left  end of the bench,. C is on second position from the right. A is on the right side of B and to the right side of E. A and C are sitting together.

6. Where is A sitting?
(1) Between B and D (2) Between D and C (3) Between E and D (4) Between C and E
(5) Between B and C

7. Who is sitting in the centre?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

8. C is sitting between
(1) B and D (2) A and E (3) D and E (4) A and D (5) A and B

9. What is the position of D?
(1) Extreme left (2) Extreme right (3) Third from left (4) Second from left (5) None of these

10. What is the position of B?
(1) Second from right (2) Centre (3) Extreme left (4) Second from left (5) None of these

Tuesday, November 10, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 314

10. A man walks 10 km towards north. From there he walks 6 km towards south. Then he walks 3 km
towards east. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point?
(1) 7 km east (2) 5 km west(3)5 km north-east (4) 7 km west (5) None of these

11. One morning after sunrise, Sumesh and Ratheesh were standing on a lawn with their backs towards each other. Sumesh’s shadow fell exactly towards his left hand side. Which direction was Ratheesh facing?
(1) East (2) West (3) North (4) South (5) North-east

12. A watch reads 4.30 if the minute hand points east, in what direction does the hour hand point?
(1) North (2) North-west (3)South-east (4) North-east (5) None of these

13. Five students A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row, D is on the right of E. B is on the left of E but is on the right of A. D is on the left of C. Who is sitting on the extreme left?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

14. Five persons were playing card game sitting in a circle all facing the centre. Ashish was to the left
of Milan Nitin was to the right of Anupam and between Anupam and Mukesh. Who was to the
right of Mukesh?
(1) Nitin (2) Milan (3) Mukesh (4) Ashish (5) Cannot be determined

15. Facing the east, Rajesh turned left and walked 10 metres, then he turned to his left again and walked 10 m. He then turned 45o towards his right and went straight to cover 25 metres. In which direction from his starting point is he?
(1) South-west (2) South-east(3)North-west (4) North-east (5) East

Monday, November 9, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 313

1. Deepak starts walking straight towards east. After walking 75 m he turns to the left and walks 25
m straight. Again he turns to the left and walks a distance of 40m straight, again he turns to the left
and walks a distance of 25 m. How far is he from the starting point?
(1) 140 m (2) 35 m (3) 115 m (4) 25 m (5) None of these

2. Arun started walking towards North. After walking 30 m, he turned left and walked 40 m. He then
turned left and walked 30 m. He again turned left and walked 50 m. How far is he from his original
position?
(1) 50 m (2) 40 m (3) 30 m (4) 20 m (5) None of these

3. Ramu went 15 km. to the west from his house, then he turned left and walked 20 km. He then
turned east and walked 25 km. and finally turning left covered 20 km. How far is he from his house?
(1) 5 km. (2) 10 km. (3) 40 km. (4) 80 km. (5) None of these

4. Rekha who is facing south turns to her left and walks 15 m, then she turns to her left and walks 7
metres, then facing west she walks 15m. How far is she from her original position?
(1) 22 m (2) 37 m (3) 44 m (4) 7 m (5) None of these

5. Going 50 m to the south of her house, Radhika turns left and goes another 20 m. Then, turning
to the north, she goes 30 m and then starts walking to her house. In which direction is she walking
now?
(1) North-west (2) North (3)South-east (4) East (5) None of these

6. Shailesh and Mohan start from a fixed point. Shailesh moves 3 km. northward, turns right and
then covers 4 km. Mohan moves 5 km westwards, turns right and walks 3 km. The distance between
Shailesh and Mohan now is
(1) 10 km (2) 9 km (3) 8 km (4) 6 km (5) 4 km

7. A man walks 30 metres towards south. Then, turning to his right, he walks 30 metres. Then
turning to his left, he walks 20 metres. Again, he turns to his left and walks 30 metres. How far is
he from his initial position?
(1) 30 metres (2) 20 metres (3)80 metres (4) 60 metres (5) None of these

8. Suresh starts from his house towards west. After walking a distance of 30 m, he turned towards
right and walked 20 metres. He then turned left and moving a distance of 10 metres, turned to his
left again and walked 40 metres. He now turns to the left and walks 5 metres. Finally he turns to his
left. In which direction is he walking now?
(1) North (2) South (3) East (4) South-West (5) West

9. Raj travelled from a point X straight to Y at a distance of 80 m. He turned right and walked 50
m, then again turned right and walked 70 metres. Finally he turned right and walked 50 m. How far
is he from the starting point?
(1) 20 metres (2) 50 metres (3)70 metres (4) 10 metres (5) None of these

Sunday, November 8, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 312

13. In a certain code, 247 means spread red carpet ; 256 means dust one carpet and 264 means one
red carpet which digit in that code means dust?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) Cannot say

14. In a certain code language, 134 means good and tasty, 478 means see good pictures ; and 729
means pictures are faint. Which of the following digits stands for see?
(1) 4 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 8 (5) None of these

15. In a certain code 253 means books are old ; 546 means man is old and 378 means buy good books.What stands for ‘are’ in that code?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) 9

16. In a certain code language TSSNOFFQ is written as STRONGER then GQFDENN will be written as
(1) DOMEERF (2) FEEDORM (3)FREEDOM (4) FREEDMO (5) None of these

17. If FULFNHW is the code for CRICKET, EULGH will be coded as
(1) PRIDE (2) BRIDE (3) BLADE (4) BLIND (5) None of these

18. If in a certain language REMOTE is coded as ROTEME, which word would be coded as
PNIICC?
(1) NPIICC (2) PICCIN (3) PINCIC (4) PICNIC (5) PICINC

Directions (19-21): The number in each question below is to be codified in the following code.
Digit:   5 3 7  1  4 9  6  2 8
Letter: C J O X N Q T Z F

19. 163542
(1) XTJCNZ (2) TXJCNZ (3) XTJCZN (4) XTCJNZ (5) None of these

20. 925873
(1) ZQCFOJ (2) QZCFOJ (3) QZCOFJ (4) QZCFJO (5) None of these

21. 741568
(1) ONCXTF (2) NOXCFT (3) ONCFCT (4) ONXCTF (5) None of these

22. In a certain code ORANGE is written as ‘ ? ÷ @ • + * ’ and EAT is written as ‘ * @ $’. How can
ROTATE be written in that code?
(1) ÷ ? $ @ * $ (2) ÷ ? $ @ • * (3)÷ ? $ @ $ * (4) ÷ ? $ * • @ (5) None of these

23. In a certain code ‘PALM’ is written as ‘ £ @ ? $ ’ and ‘ARM’ is written as ‘ @ * $ ’. How can
‘ALARM’ be written in that code?
(1) @ £ @ ? $ (2) @ $ ? £ @ (3) ? @ @ £ $ (4) @ ? @ £ $ (5) None of these

24. In a certain code ‘HEAT’ is written as ‘ ? * $ @ ’ and ‘FINGER’ is written as ‘ £ • & *@’. How can ‘FATHER’ be written in that code?
(1) $ @ ? *@ (2) $ @ ? @* (3) @ ? @ $ * (4) $ @ ? @* (5) None of these

25. In a certain code ‘BODE’ is written as ‘ @ $ * ? ’ and ‘EAT’ is written as ‘ ? • £ ’ How can ‘DEBATE’ be written in that code?
(1) ? * @ * £ • (2) * ? @ • £ ? (3)* ? @ * £ ?(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Saturday, November 7, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 311

1. If in a certain language CHAMPION is coded as HCMAIPNO, how can NEGATIVE be coded in
that code?
(1) ENAGITEV (2) NEAGVEIT(3) MGAETVIE (4) EGAITEVN (5) NEGATIEV

2. In a certain language KINDLE is coded as ELDNIK, how can EXOTIC be coded in that code?
(1) EXOTLC (2) CXOTIE (3) COXITE (4) CITOXE (5) EOXITC

3. If in a certain language GAMBLE is coded as FBLCKF, how can FLOWER be coded in that language?
(1) GKPVFQ (2) EMNXDS (3) GMPVDS (4) HNQYGT (5) EKNVDQ

4. If in a certain language FASHION is coded as FOIHSAN, how can PROBLEM be coded in that
code?
(1) ROBLEMP (2) PLEBRUM (3)PRBOELM (4) RPBOELM (5) PELBORM

5. If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how can CANDLE be written in that code?
(1) EDRIRL (2) DCQHQK (3) ESJFME (4) FYOBOC (5) DEQJQM

6. If in a certain code, TWENTY is written as 863985 and ELEVEN is written as 323039, how can
TWELVE be written in that code?
(1) 863203 (2) 863584 (3) 863903 (4) 863063 (5) None of these

7. If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590,how can is PEARL be coded in that language?
(1) 29530 (2) 24153 (3) 25413 (4) 25430 (5) None of these

8. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, what will be the code for SEARCH?
(1) 246173 (2) 214673 (3) 214763 (4) 216473 (5) None of these

9. In a certain code nee tim see means how are you ;ble nee see means where are you. What will be
the code for where?
(1) nee (2) tim (3) see (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

10. In a certain code language pit nae tom means apple is green ; nae ho tap means green and white and ho tom ka means shirt is white. Which of the following represents apple in that language?
(1) nae (2) tom (3) pit (4) ho (5) ka

11. If nitco sco tingo stands for softer than flower ; tingo rho mst stands for sweet flower fragrance
and mst sco tmp stands for sweet than smile what would fragrance stand for?
(1) rho (2) mst (3) tmp (4) sco (5) None of these

12. In a certain code language, 743 means Mangoes are good ; 657 means Eat good food ; and 934
means Mangoes are ripe. Which digit means ripe in that language?
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 9 (4) 7 (5) Cannot be determined

Friday, November 6, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 310

Directions: In each of the following questions, various terms of a letter series are given with one term
missing. Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.

11. cmw, hrb, ——, rbl, wgq, blv
(1) mwg (2) lvf (3) lwg (4) mxg (5) wmx

12. DKY FJW HIU JHS ——
(1) KGR (2) LFQ (3) KFR (4) LGQ (5) None of these

13. —— siy oeu kaq gwm csi
(1) wne (2) wnb (3) vne (4) vme (5) None of these

14. BXJ ETL HPN KLP ——
(1) NHR (2) MHQ (3) MIP (4) NIR (5) None of these

15. QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, ——
(1) XVZ (2) ZYA (3) YXW (4) VWX (5) AZY

16. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ——
(1) Y17O (2) X17M (3) X17O (4) X16O (5) None of these

17. D-4, F-6, H-8, J-10, ——, ——
(1) K-12, M-13 (2) L-12, M-14 (3) L-12, N-14 (4) K-12, M-14 (5) K-12, N-14

18. G, H, J, M, ——, V
(1) T (2) S (3) R (4) U (5) Q

19. OTE PUF QVG RWH ——
(1) SYJ (2) TXI (3) SXJ (4) SXI (5) QWD

20. BD GI LN QS ——
(1) TV (2) VW (3) WX (4) WY (5) VX

Directions: In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.

21. ba-ba - bac - acb - cbac
(1) aacb (2) bbca (3) ccba(4) cbac (5) None of these

22. adb - ac - da - cddcb - dbc - cbda
(1) bccba (2) cbbaa (3) ccbba (4) bbcad (5) None of these

23. a - ba - cbaac - aa - ba
(1) ccbb (2) cabc (3) cbcb (4) bbcc (5) None of these

24. - bc - - bb - aabc
(1) acac (2) babc (3) abab 4) aacc (5) None of these

25. b - b - bb - - bbb - bb - b
(1) bbbbba (2) bbaaab (3) ababab (4) aabaab

Thursday, November 5, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 309

Directions: In each of the following questions a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces.
1. 4, 9, 13, 22, 35, ——
(1) 57 (2) 70 (3) 63 (4) 75 (5) None of these

2. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, ——
(1) 43 (2) 47 (3) 51 (4) 53 (5) None of these

3. 15, 31, 63, 127, 255, ——
(1) 513 (2) 511 (3) 517 (4) 523 (5) None of these

4. 5, 11, 17, 25, 33, 43, ——
(1) 49 (2) 51 (3) 52 (4) 53 (5) None of these

5. 9, 12, 11, 14, 13, ——, 15
(1) 12 (2) 16 (3) 10 (4) 17 (5) None of these

Directions: In each of the following questions, one term in the number series is wrong. Find the wrong term.

6. 125, 126, 124, 127, 123, 129
(1) 123 (2) 124 (3) 126 (4) 127 (5) 129

7. 10, 26, 74, 218, 654, 1946, 5834
(1) 26 (2) 74 (3) 218(4) 654 (5) 1946

8. 1, 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 91
(1) 31 (2) 15 (3) 56 (4) 91 (5) 2

9. 3, 7, 15, 39, 63, 127, 255, 511
(1) 39 (2) 15 (3) 7 (4) 63 (5) 127

10. 56, 72, 90, 110, 132, 150
(1) 72 (2) 90 (3) 110 (4) 132 (5) 150

Wednesday, November 4, 2015

Bank Exam Preparation 308

1. EGI : JLO : : PRT : ?
(1) AYW (2) WYA (3) YWA (4) VXA (5) VXZ

2. NOP : UVW : : PON : ?
(1) VUW (2) WVU (3) WUV (4) UVW (5) UWV

3. GIKM : HKNQ : : HJLN : ?
(1) LIOR (2) LIRO (3) ILRO (4) ILOR (5) IOLR

4. REYN : TGZO : : WJPA : ?
(1) QBRN (2) MQXB (3) ROMB (4) YLQB (5) VWYA

5. PSXM : QRYL : : BFTV : ?
(1) AESU (2) CEUU (3) DHVW (4) CGUV (5) AGSW

6. SADL : XFZH : : LIOE ?
(1) QNKA (2) POLB (3) PMJA (4) QNKB (5) PMSI

7. PRLN : XZTV : : JLFH : ?
(1) RTNP (2) NPRT (3) NRPT (4) NTRP (5) RPNT

8. KWMT : MXOU : : PSAQ : ?
(1) RCRT (2) QRTC (3) QTRC (4) RQTC (5) RTCR

9. JNQS : OIVN : : EHMQ : ?
(1) IBQM (2) FINR (3) JBRL (4) JCRL (5) IRLQ

10. NOPQ : PMRO : : ABCD : ?
(1) CZEB (2) CDEF (3) YZAB (4) CDAB (5) YZEF

Tuesday, November 3, 2015

Bank Preparation 307

Directions: In each of the following questions the first two words have definite relationship. Choose one word out of the given four alternatives which will fill in the blank space and show the same relationship with the third word as between the first two.

21. Taj Mahal is related to Love in the same way as Jallianwalabagh is related to ——— ?
(1) Amritsar (2) Martyrdom (3) War (4) Punjab (5) None of these

22. Poison is related to Socrates in the same way as Crucification is related to ——— ?
(1) Jesus (2) Christians (3) Aristotle (4) Church (5) None of these

23. Tempest is to Storm as Slim is to ——— ?
(1) Fat (2) Plump (3) Slender (4) Beautiful (5) None of these

24. Ladies is to Purse as Gents is to ——— ?
(1) Bag (2) Pocket (3) Wallet (4) Case (5) None of these

25. Article is to Magazine as Slokas is to ——— ?

(1) Ascetic (2) Veda (3) Recite (4) Book (5) None of these

Monday, November 2, 2015

Bank Preparation 306

Directions: The following questions consist of two words that have a certain relationship between each other, followed by four numbered pairs of words. Select the numbered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

11. Dove : Peace
(1) Crow : Scavenge (2) Knife : Cut (3) Lull : Storm (4) Pearl : Purity (5) None of these

12. Horse : Mare
(1) Duck : Geese (2) Dog : Puppy (3) Donkey : Pony (4) Fox : Vixen (5) None of these

13. Cricket : Pitch
(1) Ship : Dock (2) Boat : Harbour (3) Wrestling : Track (4) Boxing : Ring (5) None of these

14. Preamble : Constitution
(1) Word : Dictionary (2) Contents:Magazine (3) Explanation : Poetry (4) Preface : Book (5) None of these

15. Rocket : Fuel
(1) Man : Energy (2) Machine : Oil (3) Current : Electricity (4) River : Water (5) None of these

16. Large : Enormous
(1) Big : Small (2) Plump : Fat (3) Less : Greater (4) Pain : Ecstasy (5) None of these

17. Inn : Traveller
(1) Lodging : Man (2) Country : Citizen (3) Dormitory : Students (4) Ashram : Gurus (5) None of these

18. Optimistic : Pessimistic
(1) Difficult : Impossible (2) Study : Play (3) Tolerating : Disgusting (4) Export : Import (5) None of these

19. Acquire : Inherit
(1) Profit : Loss (2) Learn : Discover (3) Instinct : Habit (4) Hierarchial: Succession (5) None of these

20. Balance : Weigh

(1) Aeoroplane : Height (2) Radar : Detection (3) Satellite : Revolution (4) Television : Picture (5) None of these

Sunday, November 1, 2015

Bank Preparation 305 - Analogy

Directions: In each of the following questions there is a certain relation between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on the other side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair. Choose the correct alternative.

1. Arm : Elbow : : Leg : ?
(1) Toe (2) Knee (3) Thigh (4) Ankle (5) None of these

2. Shoes : Cobbler : : Spectacles : ?
(1) Optician (2) Eye (3) Read (4) See (5) None of these

3. Doctor : Patient : : Lawyer : ?
(1) Customer (2) Accused (3) Client (4) Magistrate (5) None of these

4. Video : Cassette : : Computer : ?
(1) Reels (2) Recordings (3) Files (4) Floppy (5) None of these

5. Rupee : India : : Yen : ?
(1) Pakistan (2) Japan (3) Bangladesh (4) Turkey (5) None of these

6. Jews : Synagogue : : Buddist : ?
(1) Temple (2) Vedas (3) Pagoda (4) Fire-temple (5) None of these

7. Major : Battalion : : Colonel : ?
(1) Company (2) Regiment (3) Army (4) Soldiers (5) None of these

8. Dog : Rabies : : Mosquito : ?
(1) Plague (2) Death (3) Malaria (4) Sting (5) None of these

9. Pesticide : Crop : : Antiseptic : ?
(1) Wound (2) Clotting (3) Bandage (4) Bleeding (5) None of these

10. Igloos : Canada : : Rondavels : ?

(1) Africa (2) Rangoon (3) Russia (4) Indonesia (5) None of these